Triangle Inequality and Convergence of ${y}_{n}$

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the convergence of the sequence ${y}_{n}$ in a metric space X and its relationship to the convergent sequence ${y}_{m+1}$ approaching ${x}^{*}$. The triangle inequality plays a crucial role in establishing that ${y}_{n}$ approaches ${x}^{*}$ under specific conditions, as outlined in the proof of Theorem 3.3 from the referenced article. The sequence ${y}_{n}$ is not arbitrary; it satisfies a condition ensuring that ${y}_{n+1}$ approaches the quantity $Ty_n$ as $n$ increases. The limit relationship is confirmed through the application of the weighted metric ${w}_{\lambda}$.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of metric spaces and convergence
  • Familiarity with triangle inequality in mathematical proofs
  • Knowledge of weighted metrics, specifically ${w}_{\lambda}$
  • Basic concepts of fixed point theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the proof of Theorem 3.3 in the article linked for deeper insights
  • Explore the properties of weighted metrics in convergence analysis
  • Learn about fixed point iterations and their convergence criteria
  • Investigate the implications of triangle inequalities in various mathematical contexts
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Mathematicians, students studying metric spaces, researchers in fixed point theory, and anyone interested in convergence properties of sequences in metric spaces.

ozkan12
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Let ${y}_{n}$ be a arbitrary sequence in X metric space and ${y}_{m+1}$ convergent to ${x}^{*}$ in X...İn this case by using triangle inequality can we say that ${y}_{n}\to {x}^{*}$
 
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What's the relationship between $y_n$ and $y_{m+1}$? Is it the same sequence? On the one hand, it would seem not, because $y_n$ is arbitrary. On the other hand, the notation would indicate to me that they are the same sequence. Is it a subsequence?
 
Very helpful link, thank you!

The sequence $\{y_n\}$ is by no means arbitrary. It satisfies a very particular condition. It's not an iterative sequence, because $y_{n+1}\not\equiv T y_n$. However, the condition that the sequence satisfies ensures that $y_{n+1}$ is getting "closer and closer" - in the modular sense - to the quantity $Ty_n$ as $n\to\infty$. That's what
$$w_{\lambda}(y_{n+1},Ty_n)\le \varepsilon_n$$
guarantees.

To answer the question in the OP, there is a triangle inequality invoked in the proof of Theorem 3.3. It's used in the third line down from the word "Proof", where you have
$$w_{\frac{\lambda\cdot m}{m}}(T^{m+1}x,y_{m+1}) \le
w_{\frac{\lambda(m-1)}{m}}(T^{m+1}x,Ty_m)+w_{\frac{\lambda}{m}}(Ty_m,Ty_{m+1}).$$
 
Dear Ackbach

İn this case, How we say that $\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}} {y}_{n}={x}^{*}$ in this article...? I found something but I am not

sure...I wrote it..

${w}_{\lambda}\left({y}_{n},{x}^{*}\right)={w}_{\frac{\lambda}{2}}\left({y}_{n},{T}^{n}x\right)+{w}_{\frac{\lambda}{2}}\left({T}^{n}x,{x}^{*}\right)$
$\le\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}{k}^{n-1-i}{\varepsilon}_{i}+{w}_{\frac{\lambda}{2}}\left({T}^{n}x,{x}^{*}\right)$

By taking limit as $n\to\infty$ we get $\lim_{{n}\to{\infty}}{w}_{\lambda}\left({y}_{n},{x}^{*}\right)$...İs this true ?

Thank you for your attention :)
 

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