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Could you please clarify if this is correct:

If tan^(-1)(x) = Pi/2 - tan^(-1)(1/x)

Then if we have (ax) as the angle where a is a constant, do we get:

tan^(-1)(ax) = Pi/2 - tan^(-1)(a/x)

or does the constant go on the bottom with the x? i.e. or:

tan^(-1)(ax) = Pi/2 - tan^(-1)(1/(ax))

Thank you very much,

Kat

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# Homework Help: Trigonometric identity for inverse tan

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