Trodimensional Fourier transform

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the application of the Trodimensional Fourier transform in spherical polar coordinates, specifically the integral representation of the Fourier transform, \(\mathcal{F}\{f(r)\}=\int e^{i\vec{k}\cdot \vec{r}}f(r)d\vec{r}\). Participants clarify that the angle \(\theta\) ranges from 0 to \(\pi\) for the dot product and that \(\varphi\) should range from 0 to \(2\pi\) to cover all spatial dimensions. The transformation is valid for radial functions, as indicated by the expression \(\mathcal{F}\{f(\vec{r})\}=\int^{\infty}_0r^2dr\int^{\pi}_0\sin\theta d\theta\int^{\pi}_0d\varphi e^{ikr\cos \theta}f(\vec{r})\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier transforms, specifically in three dimensions.
  • Familiarity with spherical polar coordinates.
  • Knowledge of vector dot products and their geometric interpretations.
  • Basic concepts of radial functions in mathematical analysis.
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  • Study the properties of Fourier transforms in three dimensions.
  • Learn about the applications of spherical polar coordinates in physics and engineering.
  • Explore the implications of radial functions in Fourier analysis.
  • Investigate the relationship between vector calculus and Fourier transforms.
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Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers interested in advanced Fourier analysis, particularly those working with spherical coordinates and radial functions.

LagrangeEuler
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\mathcal{F}\{f(r)\}=\int e^{i\vec{k}\cdot \vec{r}}f(r)d\vec{r}
in spherical polar coordinates
\mathcal{F}\{f(r)\}=\int^{\infty}_0r^2dr\int^{\pi}_0\sin\theta d\theta\int^{\pi}_0d\varphi e^{ikr\cos \theta}f(r)

Why could I take ##e^{ikr\cos \theta}## and to take that ##\theta## is angle which goes from zero to ##\pi##. Thanks for the answer.
 
Last edited:
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You need to take φ from 0 to 2π in order to integrate over all space. As for your question (as best as I can understand it), the dot product between two vectors is the product of magnitude of the vectors and cosθ, where θ has the range [0,π].
 
LagrangeEuler said:
\mathcal{F}\{f(r)\}=\int e^{i\vec{k}\cdot \vec{r}}f(r)d\vec{r}
in spherical polar coordinates
\mathcal{F}\{f(r)\}=\int^{\infty}_0r^2dr\int^{\pi}_0\sin\theta d\theta\int^{\pi}_0d\varphi e^{ikr\cos \theta}f(r)

Why could I take ##e^{ikr\cos \theta}## and to take that ##\theta## is angle which goes from zero to ##\pi##. Thanks for the answer.

Could I use this also?
\mathcal{F}\{f(\vec{r})\}=\int^{\infty}_0r^2dr\int^{\pi}_0\sin\theta d\theta\int^{\pi}_0d\varphi e^{ikr\cos \theta}f(\vec{r})

I thought that I can use ##e^{i\vec{k}\cdot \vec{r}}=e^{ikr\cos \theta}##, only when ##f(r)## is radial function.
 

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