- #1
LagrangeEuler
- 717
- 20
[tex]\mathcal{F}\{f(r)\}=\int e^{i\vec{k}\cdot \vec{r}}f(r)d\vec{r}[/tex]
in spherical polar coordinates
[tex]\mathcal{F}\{f(r)\}=\int^{\infty}_0r^2dr\int^{\pi}_0\sin\theta d\theta\int^{\pi}_0d\varphi e^{ikr\cos \theta}f(r)[/tex]
Why could I take ##e^{ikr\cos \theta}## and to take that ##\theta## is angle which goes from zero to ##\pi##. Thanks for the answer.
in spherical polar coordinates
[tex]\mathcal{F}\{f(r)\}=\int^{\infty}_0r^2dr\int^{\pi}_0\sin\theta d\theta\int^{\pi}_0d\varphi e^{ikr\cos \theta}f(r)[/tex]
Why could I take ##e^{ikr\cos \theta}## and to take that ##\theta## is angle which goes from zero to ##\pi##. Thanks for the answer.
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