can i request anyone to please show me the step by step with specific explanations? thank you! i saw this on stackexchange, and the steps shown are really fuzzy to me :(
In general [itex]\int_0^1 f(x)dx [/itex] can be approximated by a Riemann sum [itex]\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n f(\frac{k-1/2}{n})[/itex]. For large n, -1/2 can be ignored.
