# Trouble converting definite integrals to Riemann's and back

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## Main Question or Discussion Point

can i request anyone to please show me the step by step with specific explanations? thank you! i saw this on stackexchange, and the steps shown are really fuzzy to me :(

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In general $\int_0^1 f(x)dx$ can be approximated by a Riemann sum $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n f(\frac{k-1/2}{n})$. For large n, -1/2 can be ignored.