1. Apr 21, 2016 #1

   Terrell

   

   can i request anyone to please show me the step by step with specific explanations? thank you! i saw this on stackexchange, and the steps shown are really fuzzy to me :(

    

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     convert to definite integral.png

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   Terrell, Apr 21, 2016
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3. Apr 21, 2016 #2

   mathman

   

   Science Advisor

   Gold Member

   In general [itex]\int_0^1 f(x)dx [/itex] can be approximated by a Riemann sum [itex]\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n f(\frac{k-1/2}{n})[/itex]. For large n, -1/2 can be ignored.

    

   mathman, Apr 21, 2016

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