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B Trouble converting definite integrals to Riemann's and back

  1. Apr 21, 2016 #1
    can i request anyone to please show me the step by step with specific explanations? thank you! i saw this on stackexchange, and the steps shown are really fuzzy to me :(
     

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  3. Apr 21, 2016 #2

    mathman

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    In general [itex]\int_0^1 f(x)dx [/itex] can be approximated by a Riemann sum [itex]\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n f(\frac{k-1/2}{n})[/itex]. For large n, -1/2 can be ignored.
     
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