1. Apr 21, 2016 #1

   Terrell

   

   can i request anyone to please show me the step by step with specific explanations? thank you! i saw this on stackexchange, and the steps shown are really fuzzy to me :(

    

   Attached Files:

   • 

     convert to definite integral.png

     File size:

     2.9 KB

     Views:

     55

   Terrell, Apr 21, 2016
2. 
   Phys.org - latest science and technology news stories on Phys.org

   • • Game over? Computer beats human champ in ancient Chinese game
   • • Simplifying solar cells with a new mix of materials
   • • Imaged 'jets' reveal cerium's post-shock inner strength
3. Apr 21, 2016 #2

   mathman

   

   Science Advisor

   Gold Member

   In general [itex]\int_0^1 f(x)dx [/itex] can be approximated by a Riemann sum [itex]\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n f(\frac{k-1/2}{n})[/itex]. For large n, -1/2 can be ignored.

    

   mathman, Apr 21, 2016

• Log in with Facebook
• Log in with Twitter

Your name or email address:

Do you already have an account?

• No, create an account now.
• Yes, my password is:
• Forgot your password?

Stay logged in