MermaidWonders
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True or False: Let $F(x)$ be an antiderivative of a function $f(x)$. Then, $F(2x)$ is an antiderivative of the function $f(2x)$.
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The discussion centers on the statement that if $F(x)$ is an antiderivative of a function $f(x)$, then $F(2x)$ is an antiderivative of $f(2x)$. The conclusion drawn is that this statement is false. Through the substitution $u = 2x$, the integral $\int f(2x)dx$ is transformed into $(1/2)F(2x)$, demonstrating that the relationship does not hold as initially proposed. The correct derivative of $F(2x)$ is derived using the chain rule, confirming the confusion surrounding the integration process.
PREREQUISITESStudents and educators in calculus, particularly those focusing on integration techniques and the properties of antiderivatives. This discussion is beneficial for anyone seeking to clarify concepts related to function transformations and integration methods.
MermaidWonders said:OK... Here's what I came up with... took me a while but I'm still kinda confused with myself. :(
Let $u = 2x$. Then $du/dx = 2$ --> $dx = du/2$.
$\int f(2x)dx$ then becomes $\int f(u)(du/2) = (1/2)f(u)du = (1/2)F(u) = (1/2)F(2x)$.