Understanding a question about a finite energy well when E < 0

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The discussion revolves around understanding the solutions to the finite potential well problem in quantum physics, particularly when the energy E is less than zero. Participants express confusion about how valid energy solutions can exist for different variables, alpha and k, and how these can combine. There is also a query regarding the behavior of a particle with energy greater than the constant potential V0 when passing through a barrier, specifically about changes in wave amplitude and wavenumber. Additionally, the concept of bound states in a finite square well is addressed, noting that there is at least one bound state for any finite well. Overall, the conversation highlights the complexity of quantum mechanics and the importance of clarifying specific questions for better understanding.
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Homework Statement
So I didn't get how professor make wave function to be odd and even and then magically solved them,..
Relevant Equations
None, it's non-analytical.
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So
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,solution only fit for one of them , the other one is not zero , how can that be solution??
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I am pretty new to quantum physics..
 
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hutchphd said:
This is not easy nor is it simple. But is is useful. NYou might take a look at the 1-D section of

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_potential_well

as a start.Tell us exactly
  1. the question you are trying to answer and
  2. how you intend to answer it.
So, it is trying to solve this eqs
1650406530423.png
right, there are two variables , alpha and k, all related to E , so when this stands, there will be a valid E. the question is , the valid E for both of them are not stand together, how can there be "combined solutions"?
 

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hutchphd said:
This is not easy nor is it simple. But is is useful. NYou might take a look at the 1-D section of

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_potential_well

as a start.Tell us exactly
  1. the question you are trying to answer and
  2. how you intend to answer it.
Also, may I ask that, if potential V0 > 0 and it's a constant, so when the particle with E > V0 pass this potential barrier, the wave amplitude doesn't change but the wavenumber decrease right(Some energy convert to potential energy?) and where the energy transfer to?
 
hutchphd said:
This is not easy nor is it simple. But is is useful. NYou might take a look at the 1-D section of

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_potential_well

as a start.Tell us exactly
  1. the question you are trying to answer and
  2. how you intend to answer it.
1650407066650.png
let me say from this. does the particle in the finite well must have a integer number of wavelengths?
 
In one dimension there is always at least one bound state for any finite square well (and it will be the lowest symmetric state) . There may be many more depending upon the depth and width of the well.

You are trying to learn a big chunk of quantum in one bite here!
 
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