Understanding a quote about implicit differentiation

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of implicit differentiation to derive the derivative of the inverse tangent function, as presented in a quote from a calculus textbook. Participants explore the notation used in the derivation and express their thoughts on Leibniz's notation.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant translates a quote regarding the derivative of the inverse tangent function using implicit differentiation and discusses the notation involved.
  • Another participant highlights the identity ##\sec^2 y = 1 + \tan^2 y## as an important trigonometric identity relevant to the discussion.
  • A participant expresses uncertainty about their previous contributions, indicating they were attempting to clarify Leibniz's notation and acknowledges difficulties in posting and editing.
  • Another participant reiterates the same quote and notation, emphasizing their struggle with clarity and language.
  • One participant questions if there is a problem with the presented derivation, suggesting that it appears correct to them.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no clear consensus on the notation or the interpretation of the derivation, as some participants express uncertainty and others affirm the correctness of the presented information.

Contextual Notes

Participants express varying levels of confidence in their understanding and presentation of the material, with some acknowledging language barriers and difficulties in communication.

mcastillo356
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TL;DR
I've got a solved calculation of the inverse tangent function by implicit differentiation I'm trying to understand
Hi PF

A personal translation of a quote from Spanish "Calculus", by Robert A. Adams:
Inverse tangent function derivative can be also obtained by implicit differentiation: if y=tan−1⁡x, then x=tan⁡y, and 1=(sec2⁡y)dydx=(1+tan2⁡y)dydx=(1+x2)dydx Hence, ddxtan−1⁡x=11+x2
It's about advice on Lebniz's notation1=(sec2⁡y)dydx means dxdx=(sec2⁡y)dydx, I'm quite sure. Why (sec2⁡y)dydx=(1+tan2⁡y)dydx? But I'm also quite sure that the right notation for (sec2⁡y)dydx=(1+tan2⁡y)dydx would be (sec2⁡y)ddx=(1+tan2⁡y)ddx
 
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##sec^2y = 1 + tan^2 y## is one of the most important trig identities.
 
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Sorry, I've posted nonsense: I was trying to be clever about Leibniz's notation: impose my personal point of view. I've got troubles posting and editing. My weird opinion was... Well, I will post again, and then my unfounded opinion:

Quote from the book:

The derivative of the inverse tangent function can be calculated also by implicit differentiation: if ##y=\tan^{-1} x##, then ##x=\tan y##, and

$$1=(\sec^2 y)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=(1+\tan^2 y)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=(1+x^2)\dfrac{dy}{dx}$$

Hence

$$\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}$$

My botched job: set notations like ##(\sec^2 y)\dfrac{d}{dx}##

I am not native. Forgive my English.

Greetings!
 
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Sorry, I've posted nonsense: I was trying to be clever about Leibniz's notation: impose my personal point of view. I've got troubles posting and editing. My weird opinion was... Well, I will post again, and then my unfounded opinion:

Quote from the book:

The derivative of the inverse tangent function can be calculated also by implicit differentiation: if ##y=\tan^{-1} x##, then ##x=\tan y##, and

$$1=(\sec^2 y)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=(1+\tan^2 y)\dfrac{dy}{dx}=(1+x^2)\dfrac{dy}{dx}$$

Hence

$$\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan^{-1}x=\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}$$

My botched job: set notations like ##(\sec^2 y)\dfrac{d}{dx}##

I am not native. Forgive my English.

Greetings!
 
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Likes   Reactions: jedishrfu and Delta2
What's the problem with that? It all looks good to me.
 
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Likes   Reactions: mcastillo356, PhDeezNutz and Delta2

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