Undergrad Understanding an argument in Intermediate Value Theorem

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The discussion focuses on proving the Intermediate Value Theorem (IVT), which states that for a continuous function f on the interval [a, b], if L lies between f(a) and f(b), then there exists a c in [a, b] such that f(c) = L. The proof begins by defining a set S of points where f(x) < L and using the supremum of this set, c, to analyze the behavior of f at c. It demonstrates that if f(c) > L, continuity implies f(c-h) > L for some small h, leading to a contradiction if f(c) were not equal to L. The discussion also touches on the definition of continuity and its implications for the connectedness of the image set, reinforcing the necessity of the existence of such a c. Overall, the arguments highlight the relationship between continuity and the existence of intermediate values within the given interval.
Hall
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We have to prove:
If ##f: [a,b] \to \mathcal{R}## is continuous, and there is a ##L## such that ##f(a) \lt L \lt f(b)## (or the other way round), then there exists some ##c \in [a,b]## such that ##f(c) = L##.

Proof: Let ##S = \{ x: f(x) \lt L\}##. As ##S## is a set of real numbers and non-empty, therefore we can assume ##\sup S = c##.

CASE 1: Here is the standard argument "if ##f(c) \gt L##, then by continuity ##f(c-h) \gt L## for some small ##h##". How does continuity imply that? Is it like this:
if ##f(c) \gt L##, and for some small ##h## if ##f(c-h) \lt L##, then we have
$$
\begin{align*}
f(c) - f(c-h) \gt 0 \\
\lim_{h \to 0} (f(c) - f(c-h)) \gt 0 && \textrm{and by continuity, we have} \\
f(c) - f(c) \gt 0 \\
0 \gt 0 && \textrm{which is absurd} \\
\end{align*}
$$
Therefore, for small ##h## ##f(c-h) \gt L##.
 
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This is just a simple application of the definition of continuity of f at c.

By definition, f is continuous at c iff for every \epsilon &gt; 0 there exists \delta &gt; 0 such that if |x - c| &lt; \delta then |f(x) - f(c)| &lt; \epsilon.

If f(c) &gt; L we can therefore make the particular choice of \epsilon = f(c) - L &gt; 0 and conclude that if 0 &lt; h &lt; \delta then <br /> f(c - h) &gt; f(c) - (f(c) - L) = L.
 
pasmith said:
This is just a simple application of the definition of continuity of f at c.

By definition, f is continuous at c iff for every \epsilon &gt; 0 there exists \delta &gt; 0 such that if |x - c| &lt; \delta then |f(x) - f(c)| &lt; \epsilon.

If f(c) &gt; L we can therefore make the particular choice of \epsilon = f(c) - L &gt; 0 and conclude that if 0 &lt; h &lt; \delta then <br /> f(c - h) &gt; f(c) - (f(c) - L) = L.
Why ##|f(c-h) -f(c)| = f(c) - f(c-h)##?
 
Hall said:
Why ##|f(c-h) -f(c)| = f(c) - f(c-h)##?

We have <br /> |f(c) - f(c-h)| &lt; f(c) - L \Leftrightarrow f(c) - (f(c) - L) &lt; f(c - h) &lt; f(c) + (f(c) - L) We don't care about the upper bound here; all we need to know is that f(c - h) is strictly greater than L.
 
@pasmith I took some time to carefully understand your completely formal validation of that argument.

Sir, I would like to request your wise opinion on the following explanation, though a bit informal, of that argument:
If ##f(c) \gt L##, we can safely write ##f(c) - L = \varepsilon##. Since, the definition of continuity says
"A function is continuous at point ##x## if the difference between ##f(x)## and ##f(x + \delta)## (where ##\delta## is an infinitesimal increment) is ##f(x) - f(x+\delta)##"
(Cauchy's Course de Analyse, section 2.2)

So, decrease ##c## by an amount ##delta## such that ##f(c) - f(c-\delta) = \varepsilon/2##. And on coupling it with the previous relation on L, we get
##f(c-\delta) - L = \varepsilon/2##
##f(c-\delta) \gt L##.

But it seems to me that when I assumed there exists a delta, which upon subtracted from c, which would produce a distance of ##epsilon/2##, is in itself an application of IVT.

This definition of continuity
$$
\begin{align*}
\textrm{ for every epsilon > 0 there exits a delta > 0 such that}\\
|x-c| \lt \delta \implies |f(x) - f(c) | \lt \epsilon
\end{align*}
$$
Doesn't it imply that at every distance from ##f(c)## there is a ##f(x)## for an ##x## in the interval?
 
You can also see this from the perspective of connectedness. Continuous maps preserve connectedness. If there was no such c with f(c)=L, the image set would have a disconnection at L. And your set S will need to be bounded above in order to be guaranteed having an upper bound; the set ##(3, \infty)## has no ( Real) upper bound.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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