Understanding Completeness Property Proof

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the completeness property proof in set theory, specifically referencing Goldrei's Classic Set Theory. Participants are exploring the implications of the definitions of real numbers and Dedekind left sets, particularly in relation to the proof that a certain upper bound does not belong to the set of rational numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to understand why it is necessary to prove that UA≠ℚ and are questioning the implications of a real number being defined as a Dedekind left set. There is discussion about the existence of a rational number q that does not belong to a given real number s.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided clarifications regarding the definitions involved, while others are constructing proofs and seeking feedback on their reasoning. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of these definitions and properties, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of the definitions provided in the textbook, which may limit their understanding of the completeness property and the nature of real numbers. There are also mentions of potential typographical errors in the mathematical expressions presented.

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Homework Statement



I'm reading Goldrei's Classic Set Theory, and I'm kind of stuck in the completeness property proof, here is the page from googlebooks:

https://books.google.com/books?id=1dLn0knvZSsC&pg=PA14&lpg=PA14&dq="first+of+all,+as+a+is+non+empty"&source=bl&ots=6fwW7jd8i4&sig=txERO1ZYpOKkJ_SVdY82LNMs3io&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjmxLn_wIbKAhVX-mMKHdPaCSkQ6AEIHzAA#v=onepage&q="first of all, as a is non empty"&f=false

Homework Equations


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The Attempt at a Solution


Ok, I guess I understand the first part regarding α=UA.

What I don't get is why are we trying to prove that UA≠ℚ? Also, what does he mean when he says: "As s∈ℝ there is some rational q such that q∉s", how is that possible? if s is a real number, it should include all rational numbers, right? Unless what's meant by that is that there is a rational q that's greater than s, and thus doesn't belong to s?
 
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A real number is defined as a Dedekind left set.
See the definition of a Dedekind left set on page 9 of the book: it has to be a proper subset of ℚ.

It follows that a real number does not include all rationals.
 
Samy_A said:
A real number is defined as a Dedekind left set.
See the definition of a Dedekind left set on page 9 of the book: it has to be a proper subset of ℚ.

It follows that a real number does not include all rationals.
Yeah that's what I meant when I said unless q is greater than the real number s,since it's a Dedekind left set, it won't include it. But still, why are we trying to prove that UA≠ℚ?
 
A.MHF said:
Yeah that's what I meant when I said unless q is greater than the real number s,since it's a Dedekind left set, it won't include it. But still, why are we trying to prove that UA≠ℚ?
Because that's by definition a requirement for a real number (as defined in the book). It may look self-evident that UA≠ℚ (as A is bounded above), but at this stage in the book all you know about real numbers are the definition and some very basic properties. The author uses these to show that UA≠ℚ: a requirement for UA to be a real number.
 
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Samy_A said:
Because that's by definition a requirement for a real number (as defined in the book). It may look self-evident that UA≠ℚ (as A is bounded above), but at this stage in the book all you know about real numbers are the definition and some very basic properties. The author uses these to show that UA≠ℚ: a requirement for UA to be a real number.

Thanks, that was helpful. Regarding the exercise (in the same page), I constructed this proof, what are your thoughts?
Assuming there was such a number s such that rs, for all r∈ℝ then since s∈ℝ, there is q such that q∉s.
Now suppose that p=q+1.
let q be the real number corresponding to q and p the real number corresponding to p.
q={x∈Q:x<q}
p={q∈Q:q<p}
now, q∉sqss⊆q (according to one of Dedekind's left set linear property)
Also qp (from their definitions)
s⊂q doesn't imply that s⊂p, therefore p≤s isn't satisfied and thus r≤s isn't satisfied as well.
 
A.MHF said:
Thanks, that was helpful. Regarding the exercise (in the same page), I constructed this proof, what are your thoughts?
Assuming there was such a number s such that rs, for all r∈ℝ then since s∈ℝ, there is q such that q∉s.
Now suppose that p=q+1.
let q be the real number corresponding to q and p the real number corresponding to p.
q={x∈Q:x<q}
p={q∈Q:q<p}
now, q∉sqss⊆q (according to one of Dedekind's left set linear property)
Also qp (from their definitions)
s⊂q doesn't imply that s⊂p, therefore p≤s isn't satisfied and thus r≤s isn't satisfied as well.
Yes, this is correct. You prove that p is a real number that doesn't satisfy ps, proving that ℝ has no upper bound.
A few minor remarks:
You should emphasize that ps.
There are some typo's in your post:
p={q∈Q:q<p} is confusing, as q has already been used. Better write p={x∈ℚ:x<p}.
And s⊂q does imply that s⊂p, not doesn't as you wrote.
 
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Samy_A said:
Yes, this is correct. You prove that p is a real number that doesn't satisfy ps, proving that ℝ has no upper bound.
A few minor remarks:
You should emphasize that ps.
There are some typo's in your post:
p={q∈Q:q<p} is confusing, as q has already been used. Better write p={x∈ℚ:x<p}.
And s⊂q does imply that s⊂p, not doesn't as you wrote.

Oh I see.
So I should define p=q+1 in which the corresponding real number is p={x<ℚ:x<p} such that p≠s.
And
s⊂q → s⊂p, thus we proved that there is a a real number p such that it's greater than q yet doesn't satisfy p≤s, therefore ℝ has no upper bound.
 
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