Understanding Saturated Sets in Quotient Maps

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A subset C of X is defined as saturated with respect to a surjective map p:X→Y if it contains every preimage p-1({y}) that intersects it. This means that if C intersects p-1({y}) nonemptily, it must include all elements of p-1({y}). Any subset of Y can be used in this context, as there are no restrictions on it being open or closed. An equivalent characterization is that C is saturated if it equals the preimage of its image under p, denoted as p^{-1}(p(C)). Understanding saturated sets can also be approached through equivalence relations, where C is saturated if it is the union of equivalence classes.
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I am reading munkres topolgy and I am struggling with understanding the following sentence:

"We say that a subset C of X is saturated (with respect to the surjective map p:X→Y) if C contains every set p-1({y}) that it intersects"

if you have the second edition its in chapter 2 section 22 (page 137)

It's not that I have questions on it I just can't seem to make heads or tails of that sentence.

any help would be appreciated
 
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hideelo said:
"We say that a subset C of X is saturated (with respect to the surjective map p:X→Y) if C contains every set p-1({y}) that it intersects"
All it means is that if C intersect p-1({y}) is nonempty, then C actually contains all of p-1({y}). So if C is saturated and p-1({y}) has say, two elements, it is not possible that only one of those elements is in C.

This is equivalent to "C is a saturated subset of X if C is the preimage of some subset of Y".
 
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thanks

do we make any demands on the subset of Y, need it be open, closed... or will any subset do?
 
hideelo said:
thanks

do we make any demands on the subset of Y, need it be open, closed... or will any subset do?
Any subset will do.
 
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hideelo said:
thanks

do we make any demands on the subset of Y, need it be open, closed... or will any subset do?

Another equivalent form is that ##C## is saturated if and only if ##C=p^{-1}(p(C))##. So the exact form of the subset of ##Y## is ##p(C)##.

That said, I prefer dealing with quotient mappings in terms of equivalence relations. Thus a quotient map ##p:X\rightarrow Y## induces a equivalence relation on ##X## given by ##x\sim x^\prime## if and only iff ##p(x) = p(x^\prime)##. The set of all equivalence classes can then be identified wuth ##Y##.

In that form, we can give new equivalent forms of saturated sets. One such form is to say that a set ##C## is saturated iff it is the union of equivalence classes. Another form is to say that ##C## is saturated if for any ##x\in C## and ##y\in C## such that ##x\sim y## holds that ##y\in C##.

All of these forms are easily seen to be equivalent, but sometimes one equivalent form might give more insight than another one.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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