Understanding the Evaluation Homomorphism and Isomorphism in Extension Fields

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[SOLVED] simple extensions

Homework Statement



My book (Farleigh) says the following (I am paraphrasing):

Let E be an extension field of a field F, and let [itex]\alpha \in E[/itex]. Suppose [itex]\alpha[/itex] is algebraic over a field F. Let [itex]\phi_{\alpha}[/itex] be the evaluation homomorphism of F[x] into E with [itex]\phi_{\alpha}(a)=a[/itex] for [itex]a \in F[/itex] and [itex]\phi_{\alpha}(x)=\alpha[/itex] .

Suppose \alpha is algebraic over F. Then [itex]F[x]/<irr(\alpha,F)>[/itex] is isomorphic to the image of [itex]\phi_{\alpha}[F[x]][/itex] in E.

What I do not understand is how this can be true when [itex]\alpha[/itex] is in F. When [itex]\alpha[/itex] is in F, [itex]\phi_{\alpha}[F[x]][/itex] = F, but I think it is pretty clear that [itex]F[x]/<irr(\alpha,F)>=F[x]/<x-\alpha>[/itex] will not equal F because x - \alpha will generate a nontrivial ideal. What is wrong here!

Also, I do not understand why the stuff in bold is necessary. I thought that was obvious from the definition of an evaluation map.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution

 
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I am starting to kind of see why F[x]/<x-alpha> is isomorphic to F, but can someone explain/prove that please? It is probably really easy.
 
If alpha is in F, then the evaluation at alpha homomorphism from F[x] to F is surjective and its kernel is <x-alpha>. So by the first isomorphism theorem, F[x]/<x-alpha> =~ F.

And about the bold stuff: it's probably there because that's the definition of phi_alpha.
 
That makes sense.