Understanding the Fourier Sine Transform: Valid Inputs and Applications

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Fourier sine transform, specifically the formula F(ω) = (2/π) ∫₀^∞ f(t) sin(ωt) dt. The user explores the validity of inputs, particularly the Heaviside function H(1-x) and the constant function f(t) = 1. The integral for the Heaviside function converges to F(ω) = (2/πω)(1 - cos(ω)), while the integral for f(t) = 1 does not converge for any ω ≠ 0, yet Mathematica provides a result of √(2/π)/ω.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier transforms, specifically the Fourier sine transform.
  • Knowledge of the Heaviside function and its properties.
  • Familiarity with integral calculus and convergence of integrals.
  • Experience using Mathematica for symbolic computation.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the Fourier sine transform in detail.
  • Learn about the convergence criteria for Fourier transforms.
  • Explore the applications of the Heaviside function in differential equations.
  • Investigate advanced features of Mathematica for handling improper integrals.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers working with differential equations and Fourier analysis, particularly those interested in understanding the nuances of Fourier sine transforms and their applications.

Arkuski
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I am having a hard time understanding how the Fourier sine transform works. I understand that you input a function and you get a function as an output, but I have no idea how certain inputs are even valid. Here is what the book gives for the transform:
F(\omega )=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty}f(t)\displaystyle\sin (\omega t)dt
For my example, I need to transform an IC in a PDE problem. u(x,0)=H(1-x) where H is the Heaviside function. Basically, u(x,0)=1 when 0\le x<1 and u(x,0)=0 when x\ge 1. I assume then that the transform works out in the following manner:
F(\omega )=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{1}\displaystyle\sin (\omega t)dt=\frac{2}{\pi \omega}(1-\displaystyle\cos (\omega)
What would happen in the case that f(t)=1? The integral would not converge, yet, mathematica tells me there is an answer.
 
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Arkuski said:
What would happen in the case that f(t)=1? The integral would not converge, yet, mathematica tells me there is an answer.
If ##f(t) = 1## for all ##t \in \mathbb{R}##, you are of course correct. The integral ##\int_{0}^{\infty} \sin(\omega t) dt## does not converge for any ##\omega \neq 0##. What "answer" did Mathematica give you?
 
I was getting \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}/\omega
 
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