Understanding Torque in a Magnetic Field with Loop

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The discussion centers on understanding the torque experienced by a current loop in a magnetic field, specifically addressing the confusion around the angles involved. Participants clarify that the normal to the loop is vertical while the magnetic field is at a 45-degree angle below the horizontal, leading to a 135-degree angle between the magnetic field and the loop's normal. The torque equation, τ = -IABsin(θ), is debated, particularly regarding the interpretation of the negative sign and the direction of torque. The conversation emphasizes the importance of visualizing the vectors correctly and how the torque will influence the loop's orientation. Overall, the thread highlights the complexities of torque calculations in magnetic fields and the need for precise vector representation.
  • #31
haruspex said:
Actually that line doesn't make sense either. The LHS is a current element but the RHS is a current times a length element.
I meant
##Idl = (I(-rsin\theta d\theta), Ircos\theta d\theta, 0)##

unsure why dl has to be in terms of r and ##\theta##
if so, does ##\vec dl = rd\theta (-\vec i + \vec j)##
 
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  • #32
haruspex said:
That integral makes no sense. You show dl as the integration variable but the range seems to be for an angle. Write it all in terms of ##r, \theta## instead of l and perform that cross product.
dI = (dx, dy, 0) = ##(-rsin\theta d\theta), rcos\theta d\theta, 0)##
where x = ##rcos\theta## and y = ##rsin\theta##
 
  • #33
annamal said:
why dl has to be in terms of r and θ
So that you can do the integral.
annamal said:
if so, does ##\vec dl = rd\theta (-\vec i + \vec j)##
No, it is what you wrote,
annamal said:
##(-rsin\theta d\theta, rcos\theta d\theta, 0)##
Now substitute that for ##\vec{dl}## in ##\vec F = \int_{\theta=0}^{2\pi} I\vec{dl} \times \vec B##, and replace ##\vec B## there using ##\vec B = (0, B_y, -B_z)##. Then perform the cross product, then perform the integration.
 
  • #34
haruspex said:
So that you can do the integral.

No, it is what you wrote,

Now substitute that for ##\vec{dl}## in ##\vec F = \int_{\theta=0}^{2\pi} I\vec{dl} \times \vec B##, and replace ##\vec B## there using ##\vec B = (0, B_y, -B_z)##. Then perform the cross product, then perform the integration.
Ok, so ##(-Irsin\theta d\theta, Ircos\theta d\theta, 0) \times (0, B_y, -B_z) = \vec dF = (-IB_z rcos\theta d\theta, -IB_z rsin\theta d\theta, -IB_y rsin\theta d\theta)##
##\vec F = (-IB_z rsin\theta, IB_z rcos\theta, IB_y rcos\theta)## from 0 to ##2\pi## = 0?
 
  • #35
annamal said:
Ok, so ##(-Irsin\theta d\theta, Ircos\theta d\theta, 0) \times (0, B_y, -B_z) = \vec dF = (-IB_z rcos\theta d\theta, -IB_z rsin\theta d\theta, -IB_y rsin\theta d\theta)##
##\vec F = (-IB_z rsin\theta, IB_z rcos\theta, IB_y rcos\theta)## from 0 to ##2\pi## = 0?
Ok, so you found the net force is zero. But we don't care about the net force, we care about the net torque. So find the torque on an element and then integrate.
 
  • #36
haruspex said:
Ok, so you found the net force is zero. But we don't care about the net force, we care about the net torque. So find the torque on an element and then integrate.
What do you mean by that
##\vec r \times \vec F = (rcos\theta, rsin\theta, 0) \times (0, 0, 0)## = 0?
 
  • #37
annamal said:
What do you mean by that
##\vec r \times \vec F = (rcos\theta, rsin\theta, 0) \times (0, 0, 0)## = 0?
No, ##\vec r=\vec r(\theta)##, so you have to find the torque on an element of the loop and then integrate.
##\tau=\int \vec r\times\vec F.d\theta##.
 
  • #38
haruspex said:
No, ##\vec r=\vec r(\theta)##, so you have to find the torque on an element of the loop and then integrate.
##\tau=\int \vec r\times\vec F.d\theta##.
Ok, I get it.
 

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