High School Usage of variable in integration

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In the discussion, the integral $$\int \frac{df}{\sqrt{\sin(\theta)^2-f^2}}$$ is analyzed with the change of variable ##f=\sin(\theta)\sin(u)##. The key question is whether the variables ##f## and ##\theta## are independent, affecting the differential expression for ##df##. It is established that if ##f## is dependent on ##\theta##, then ##\frac{df}{d\theta}## cannot be zero, which complicates the integration process. Ultimately, the change of variable does not satisfy the original differential equation, raising questions about the relationship between the variables. Understanding these dependencies is crucial for correctly solving the differential equation.
jk22
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When solving differential equations the following scripture can arise, for example:

$$\int \frac{df}{\sqrt{\sin(\theta)^2-f^2}}$$

If the change of variable ##f=\sin(\theta)\sin(u)##

Is performed, do the letters ##f,\theta## shall be considered independent or is

$$df=\cos(\theta)\sin(u)d\theta+\sin(\theta)\cos(u)du$$ ?
 
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In that integral, ##\theta## is treated as a constant, so the change of variable formula is ##df = \sin\theta\ \cos u\,du##
 
What is the application? does θ depend on f ? Suppose θ is independent of f - then what would you expect to be?
 
I took an example supposing $$\int\frac{df}{\sqrt{\sin(\theta)^2-f^2}}=\frac{1}{\theta}$$

It comes from the differential equation $$\frac{df}{d\theta}=-\frac{\sqrt{\sin(\theta)^2-f^2}}{\theta^2}$$

If we put ##df=\sin\theta\cos udu## we can integrate to ##u=\frac{1}{\theta}\Rightarrow f=\sin\theta\sin(\frac{1}{\theta})##

But it does not satisfy the differential equation. Why is this ?
 
jk22 said:
If the change of variable
##f=\sin(\theta)\sin(u)## Is performed, do the letters ##f,\theta## shall be considered independent or is
$$df=\cos(\theta)\sin(u)d\theta+\sin(\theta)\cos(u)du$$ ?
It would have been helpful to include the differential equation in post #1.
jk22 said:
It comes from the differential equation $$\frac{df}{d\theta}=-\frac{\sqrt{\sin(\theta)^2-f^2}}{\theta^2}$$
If f is a function of ##\theta##, the ##\frac{df}{d\theta}## won't be zero, in general.
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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