Using a Power Series to Approximate a Definite Integral

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The discussion focuses on using a power series to approximate the integral of x^2 arctan(x^4) from 0 to 1/3. A participant expresses difficulty in achieving the correct approximation, which is noted to be 0.000065, while their calculation yielded approximately 0.000016. Key mistakes identified include neglecting the x^2 factor when determining coefficients for the power series and not maintaining the factor of 4 throughout the calculations. Another participant suggests using the Taylor series for arctan directly, emphasizing the importance of eliminating the constant of integration to avoid complications. The conversation highlights the challenges in accurately applying power series for definite integrals.
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I think I got pretty close to the answer to this problem. However, I just can't obtain the right approximation at the end. Please, help me find where I made a mistake.

Thanks.

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Use a power series to approximate the definite integral to six decimal places.

\int _0 ^{1/3} x^2 \arctan \left( x^4 \right) dx

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\frac{d}{dx} \left[ \arctan \left( x^4 \right) \right] = \frac{4x^3}{1+x^8}

\frac{1}{1+x^8}=\frac{1}{1-\left( -x^8 \right) } = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -x^8 \right) = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n}

\frac{d}{dx} \left[ \arctan \left( x^4 \right) \right] = 4 \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+3}

\arctan \left( x^4 \right) = 4 \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \int \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+3} dx = \mathrm{C} + \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \frac{\left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+4}}{8n+4}

x^2 \arctan \left( x^4 \right) dx = \mathrm{C} + \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \frac{\left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+6}}{8n+4}

\int x^2 \arctan \left( x^4 \right) dx = \mathrm{C} + \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \int \frac{\left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+6}}{8n+4} = \mathrm{C} + \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \frac{\left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+7}}{\left( 8n+4 \right) \left( 8n+7 \right)} = \mathrm{C} + \frac{x^7}{28} - \frac{x^{15}}{180} + \frac{x^{23}}{460} - \frac{x^{31}}{868} + \cdots

\int _0 ^{1/3} x^2 \arctan \left( x^4 \right) dx = \left[ \frac{x^7}{28} - \frac{x^{15}}{180} + \frac{x^{23}}{460} - \frac{x^{31}}{868} + \cdots \right] _0 ^{1/3} = \frac{1}{2^2\cdot 3^7\cdot 7} - \frac{1}{2^2\cdot 3^{17} \cdot 5} + \frac{1}{2^2\cdot 3^{23} \cdot 5 \cdot 23} - \frac{1}{2^2 \cdot 3^{31} \cdot 7 \cdot 31} + \cdots

b_1 = \frac{1}{2^2\cdot 3^{17} \cdot 5} \approx 3.9 \times 10^{-10} < 10^{-6} \Longrightarrow \int _0 ^{1/3} x^2 \arctan \left( x^4 \right) dx \approx \frac{1}{2^2\cdot 3^7\cdot 7} - \frac{1}{2^2\cdot 3^{17} \cdot 5} \approx 0.000016

The correct answer would be 0.000065.
 
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You appear to be ignoring the x^2 when you're determining the coefficients for your power series.
 
Oh... I did not keep the 4 factor all the way down. Thanks.
 
thiago_j said:
I think I got pretty close to the answer to this problem. However, I just can't obtain the right approximation at the end. Please, help me find where I made a mistake.

Thanks.

--------------------------------------------------------------

Use a power series to approximate the definite integral to six decimal places.

\int _0 ^{1/3} x^2 \arctan \left( x^4 \right) dx

--------------------------------------------------------------

\frac{d}{dx} \left[ \arctan \left( x^4 \right) \right] = \frac{4x^3}{1+x^8}

\frac{1}{1+x^8}=\frac{1}{1-\left( -x^8 \right) } = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -x^8 \right) = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n}

\frac{d}{dx} \left[ \arctan \left( x^4 \right) \right] = 4 \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+3}

\arctan \left( x^4 \right) = 4 \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \int \left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+3} dx = \mathrm{C} + \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \frac{\left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+4}}{8n+4}



x^2 \arctan \left( x^4 \right) dx = \mathrm{C} + \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \frac{\left( -1 \right) ^n x^{8n+6}}{8n+4}

Why not simply use the Taylor series of Arctan? It's simply

ArcTan (x^4) = x^4 - {x^{12} \over 3} + {x^{20} \over 5} - {x^{28} \over 7} + \ldots



Notice that you willl run into a probllem with your constant of integration "C" since it will get multiplied by x^2 later and you would have to integrate it as well! So you must get rid of it. The way to do so is of course to impose that Arctan(0) =0.

But again, using the Taylor series of ArcTan seems simpler to me.


Pat
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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