1. Jun 4, 2008 #1

   v_pino

   

   There are two equations I know of that link velocity and wavelength:
   
   1 velocity = frequency x wavelength
   
   2 de broglie wavelength= planck's constant/ (mass x velocity)
   
   I read that 'When particles are accelerated to high velocities, they have low wavelengths'.
   This means that velocity has to be inversely proportional to wavelength, and this would come from the second equation. But why?
   
   Thanks :)

    

   v_pino, Jun 4, 2008
2. 
   Phys.org - latest science and technology news stories on Phys.org

   • • New bioimaging technique is fast and economical
   • • A quick and easy way to shut down instabilities in fusion devices
   • • Engineers deliver new key components to help power a fusion energy experiment
3. Jun 4, 2008 #2

   pam

   

   The velocity in v=f*lambda is the wave velocity of a wave.
   The velocity in 2 is the velocity of particle in de Broglie's conjecture for the wavelength of the wave function associated with the particle's motion.

    

   pam, Jun 4, 2008
4. Jun 4, 2008 #3

   lightarrow

   

   In other words: they are not the same velocity, but two different ones; the first is also called "phase" velocity, the second "group" velocity.

    

   lightarrow, Jun 4, 2008

• Log in with Facebook
• Log in with Twitter

Your name or email address:

Do you already have an account?

• No, create an account now.
• Yes, my password is:
• Forgot your password?

Stay logged in