Verify the average value of (1/r) for a 1s electron in the Hydrogen atom

agnimusayoti
Messages
239
Reaction score
23
Homework Statement
Verify the average value of (1/r) for a 1s electron in the Hydrogen atom
Relevant Equations
For 1 electron, the wave function (n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0):
$$\Psi_{100}=\frac{e^{\frac{-r}{a_0}}}{(a_0)^{\frac{3}{2}}\sqrt{\pi}}$$
Average value of (1/r) therefore:
$$<1/r> = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{r} |\Psi|^{2} dV$$
For spherical coordinate, ##dV = r^{2} \sin {\theta} dr d\theta d\phi##
Therefore,
$$<\frac{1}{r}> = \frac{1}{(\pi)(a_0)^{3}} \int_{0}^{\infty} {r e^{\frac{-2r}{a_0}} dr \int_0^{\pi} \sin {\theta}} d\theta \int_0^{2\pi} d\phi$$
From partial integral, I've found:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} r e^{-2r/{a_{0}}} dr = -\frac{a_0}{2} [r e^{-2r/a_0} + \frac{a_0}{2}]_{0}^{\infty}$$
Which I couldn't get ##a_0^2/4## as the result. Could you please show the mistake? Thankss
 
Physics news on Phys.org
agnimusayoti said:
Homework Statement:: Verify the average value of (1/r) for a 1s electron in the Hydrogen atom
Relevant Equations:: For 1 electron, the wave function (n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0):
$$\Psi_{100}=\frac{e^{\frac{-r}{a_0}}}{(a_0)^{\frac{3}{2}}\sqrt{\pi}}$$
Average value of (1/r) therefore:
$$<1/r> = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{r} |\Psi|^{2} dV$$

For spherical coordinate, ##dV = r^{2} \sin {\theta} dr d\theta d\phi##
Therefore,
$$<\frac{1}{r}> = \frac{1}{(\pi)(a_0)^{3}} \int_{0}^{\infty} {r e^{\frac{-2r}{a_0}} dr \int_0^{\pi} \sin {\theta}} d\theta \int_0^{2\pi} d\phi$$
From partial integral, I've found:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} r e^{-2r/{a_{0}}} dr = -\frac{a_0}{2} [r e^{-2r/a_0} + \frac{a_0}{2}]_{0}^{\infty}$$
Which I couldn't get ##a_0^2/4## as the result. Could you please show the mistake? Thankss

$$[r e^{-2r/a_0}]_{0}^{\infty} = 0 - 0 = 0$$ Ignore this term. Anyway, there is a wrong sign in your integration.
 
agnimusayoti said:
From partial integral, I've found:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} r e^{-2r/{a_{0}}} dr = -\frac{a_0}{2} [r e^{-2r/a_0} + \frac{a_0}{2}]_{0}^{\infty}$$
Which I couldn't get ##a_0^2/4## as the result. Could you please show the mistake? Thankss
Check your integral!

Hint: An easy way to get it is to use Feynman's famous trick of "differentiating under the intgral sign"
$$\int \mathrm{d} r r \exp(-\lambda r) =-\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} \lambda} \int \mathrm{d} r \exp(-\lambda r)=\ldots$$
 
  • Like
Likes etotheipi
agnimusayoti said:
From partial integral, I've found:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} r e^{-2r/{a_{0}}} dr = -\frac{a_0}{2} [r e^{-2r/a_0} + \frac{a_0}{2}]_{0}^{\infty}$$
Which I couldn't get ##a_0^2/4## as the result. Could you please show the mistake? Thankss
If you change variables from ##r \to r'=r/(a_0/2)##, you end up with an integral which you hopefully recognize as the gamma function.
 
agnimusayoti said:
I couldn't get a02/4 as the result.

I should hope not. That has dimensions of area. The thing you are looking for has dimensions of inverse length.
 
The integral must have the dimension of area. The prefactor makes the dimensions right...
 
  • Like
Likes Vanadium 50
Ah, I was confused by the term "result".
 
  • Like
Likes vanhees71
Back
Top