Main Question or Discussion Point
I don't really understand quantum physics, but I would really like to know because I'm going to study it next year. Can someone explain it to me in laymens terms, thanks.
It's easy. In QM instead of Newton equations for ri(t) you write a wave (Schroedinger) equation for Ψ(ri,t).I don't really understand quantum physics, but I would really like to know because I'm going to study it next year. Can someone explain it to me in laymens terms, thanks.
Unfortunately no. It's pretty difficult actually, and it's certainly not explained by wave mechanics (the kind of quantum mechanics that you will study in your first QM class). If you want to see an explanation even though you won't understand it, you can look inside https://www.amazon.com/dp/0691010196/?tag=pfamazon01-20 at Amazon. Search for the word "repel", and choose the link that takes you to page 30.Can someone explain it to me in laymens terms, thanks.
I could answer this with "none of them" as well as "all of them". Virtual particles show up in the mathematics when you expand a certain function in a series and consider each term separately. To say that virtual particles "exist" is equivalent to saying that the individual terms of that series describe what's "really happening", while the sum doesn't. I don't think there's any justification for that. Hence "none of them" is a reasonable answer to your question. However, they are a part of a method to calculate the probabilities of each possible result of any experiment, and these methods work extremely well. Every experiment that involves quantum mechanics in any way is evidence of that. Even the existence of stable atoms is evidence of that. Hence "all of them" is also a reasonable answer to your question.
Personally, I don't think of virtual particles as a description of what's really happening. I think of them as a part of the easiest way to do calculations.