Vlasov-Fokker-Plank(VFP) equation from Boltzmann equation

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Pedro de la Torre
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Dear community,
I am studying some equations related to the acceleration of cosmic rays(CRs) in magnetized plasma and I have seen a couple the equations I am not able to understand.
First, I see that it is used as time-dependent Boltzmann equation for the CRs

∂ƒ/∂t + (vx + u)∂ƒ/∂x - ∂u/∂xpx∂ƒ/∂ px + FL/a ∂ƒ/∂p = C(f)
​
, where u is the background plasma velocity, FL is the Lorentz force and C(f) is the collision term.
The problem is that I have always seen this equation as ∂ƒ/∂t + (vx + u)∂ƒ/∂x + FL/a ∂ƒ/∂p = C(f), this is, without the term - ∂u/∂x px ∂ƒ/∂px that I am not able toderive.

Then, this equation is linearized supposing that the distribution function, f = f0 + f1 p/p to obtain the VFP equation:

u∂ƒ0/∂x + c/3 ∂ƒ/∂x -1/3 ∂u/∂x p ∂ƒ0/∂px
​
How do we arrive to this expression? It is clear for me that the steady state solution is taken, so ∂ƒ/∂t = 0, but I do not even understand why the factor fx appears there (fx is the x component of the vector f1).

Could someone explain me the first "modified" Boltzmann eq. and how to reach the expression of the VFP eq?

Thank you in advance.
 
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It might help if you tell us where you read this, which would help with context, e.g., a paper or textbook. Thanks.
 
I think that term comes from the strange fact that they refer to ##f(x,\vec{p})## being defined in the local fluid rest frame, i.e., the CR momenta ##\vec{p}## are taken in the fluid rest frame. That's unusual in relativistic transport theory, where one usually uses one "computational frame", and ##f(x,\vec{p})## is a Lorentz scalar function anyway (by definition!). For an intro to relativistic transport theory, see

https://th.physik.uni-frankfurt.de/~hees/publ/kolkata.pdf
 
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