Wave Functions With Same Energies Are the Same (only differ by a complex phase)

In summary: This can be done by assuming that the ground state has some negative values, and then using the fact that the potential is real and the wave function can be chosen to be real as well. This will lead to a contradiction, proving that the ground state must always be positive.
  • #1
Yoni V
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0

Homework Statement


Assume a particle with a wave function ##\psi(x)## such that ##-\infty < x < \infty##, that move under some potential ##V(x)##.

Show that:
a) two wave functions with same energies can only differ by a complex phase;
b) if the potential is real, then you can choose the wave function to be real as well;
c) the wave function of the ground state (with real potential) doesn't change sign.

Homework Equations


a) Schrodinger's time independent equation.

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm stuck at (a). Need a push in the right direction for the very start.
I want to show that if two wave functions ## \psi_1, \psi_2## satisfy
$$ \psi_{1/2}''(x) + \frac{2m}{\hbar^2}\left(E-V(x)\right)\psi_{1/2}(x)=0$$
then I can find an equation that ties them in a phase relation.
But aside from writing this statement down, I don't know how to proceed. Thanks.
 
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  • #2
Yoni V said:
a) two wave functions with same energies can only differ by a complex phase;
The answer to (a) can actually be found in numerous websites, e.g. in http://www.physicspages.com/2012/08/23/degenerate-solutions-dont-exist-in-one-dimension/. Try to understand the derivation, then ask if you are stuck on something.
 
  • #3
Yoni V said:

Homework Statement


Assume a particle with a wave function ##\psi(x)## such that ##-\infty < x < \infty##, that move under some potential ##V(x)##.

Show that:
a) two wave functions with same energies can only differ by a complex phase;
b) if the potential is real, then you can choose the wave function to be real as well;
c) the wave function of the ground state (with real potential) doesn't change sign.

Homework Equations


a) Schrodinger's time independent equation.

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm stuck at (a). Need a push in the right direction for the very start.
I want to show that if two wave functions ## \psi_1, \psi_2## satisfy
$$ \psi_{1/2}''(x) + \frac{2m}{\hbar^2}\left(E-V(x)\right)\psi_{1/2}(x)=0$$
then I can find an equation that ties them in a phase relation.
But aside from writing this statement down, I don't know how to proceed. Thanks.

If the Hamiltonian be ##\hat H## and the two normalised energy eigen vectors be ##|\psi_1> ## and ##|\psi_2>##, then from Schroedinger's time independendent equation ##\hat H |\psi_1> = E|\psi_1>## and ##\hat H |\psi_2> = E|\psi_2>##. From these two equation you can conclude that ##|\psi_2> = c|\psi_1>##. Where ##c## is a complex number. Now as the wave vectors are normalised, you can write ##<\psi_2|\psi_2> = <\psi_1|c^* c|\psi_1> \Rightarrow <\psi_2|\psi_2> = c^* c <\psi_1|\psi_1> \Rightarrow c^*c =1##. Naturally ##c = exp (i \theta)##.
 
  • #4
Korak Biswas said:
If the Hamiltonian be ##\hat H## and the two normalised energy eigen vectors be ##|\psi_1> ## and ##|\psi_2>##, then from Schroedinger's time independendent equation ##\hat H |\psi_1> = E|\psi_1>## and ##\hat H |\psi_2> = E|\psi_2>##. From these two equation you can conclude that ##|\psi_2> = c|\psi_1>##. Where ##c## is a complex number. Now as the wave vectors are normalised, you can write ##<\psi_2|\psi_2> = <\psi_1|c^* c|\psi_1> \Rightarrow <\psi_2|\psi_2> = c^* c <\psi_1|\psi_1> \Rightarrow c^*c =1##. Naturally ##c = exp (i \theta)##.
It does not explain why in 1D system like the one considered in the problem, there can be no degeneracy. Your method can be applied, for example, to a hydrogen atom. We know that for quantum numbers ##n>1##, the eigenstates are degenerate and those eigenstates are not merely related by a complex constant.
 
  • #5
Thanks for your replies!
I managed both (a) and (b) and understood its underlying principles. I'm now left with (c).
We were suggested to define ##\phi = |\psi_0|## where ##\psi_0## is the wave function of the ground state, and then express ##\phi## in terms of the Hamiltonian eigenvectors and find its energy. Then, use (b) to finish. But how can I express ##\phi## in terms of the eigenvectors of the Hamiltonian when I don't know what it is?

Ok got it... sorry, I should have given it more thought before throwing the question in the air.
 
  • #6
(c) asks you to prove that the ground state never crosses the x axis.
 

1. What is a wave function?

A wave function is a mathematical representation of the quantum state of a physical system. It describes the probability of finding a particle at a certain position and time.

2. How do wave functions with same energies differ by a complex phase?

In quantum mechanics, wave functions with the same energy levels can differ by a complex phase, which is a mathematical factor that does not affect the physical properties of the system. This means that although the wave functions may have different mathematical expressions, they still represent the same physical system.

3. Why do wave functions with same energies only differ by a complex phase?

This is a fundamental principle in quantum mechanics known as the phase invariance of wave functions. It is a consequence of the fact that the total energy of a system is conserved, and the phase of a wave function does not affect its energy.

4. Can wave functions with different energies be the same?

No, wave functions with different energies cannot be the same. This is because the energy of a system is determined by the shape and magnitude of the wave function, and a different energy level would require a different wave function.

5. How does the concept of phase invariance apply to other physical systems?

The concept of phase invariance is a fundamental principle in quantum mechanics and applies to all physical systems described by wave functions. This includes particles, atoms, and larger systems such as molecules and even the entire universe.

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