Wavefunction expansion coefficients

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The discussion centers on calculating the lowest possible energy of an electron in a 1-D box, given a specific wavefunction. The user derives the expansion coefficients for the wavefunction and questions whether two forms of the wavefunction represent the same physical state based solely on their squared magnitudes. Responses clarify that while the squared magnitudes may be equal, the wavefunctions can still represent different physical states due to differing measurement outcomes, such as momentum. The importance of computing Fourier coefficients to understand the probabilities associated with each state is emphasized. The conversation highlights the nuances of wavefunction interpretation in quantum mechanics.
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I'm working in Liboff, 4e, QM, page 114, problem 4.35.
An electron in a 1-D box with walls at x= 0,a is in the state \psi(x) = A for x\in (0,a/2) and \psi(x) = -A for x\in (a/2,a). What is the lowest possible energy that can be measured?

From my understanding, the answer to this question will be the integer of first nonzero coefficient in the expansion \psi = \Sigma \limits_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n \phi_n, where \phi_n = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a}) are the basis functions given in eq (4.15) from the book (the eigenstates for the 1D box Hamiltonian). I do this and I get a_n = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{n\pi}(1+\cos(n\pi) - 2\cos(n\pi/2)). Now correct me if I'm wrong, but is it not true that \psi(x)=A for x\in (0,a) represents the same state since only the square of the wavefunction is given significance? In that case, however, I get a_n=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{n\pi}(1-\cos(n\pi)). It is my understanding that a_n^2 represents the probability of measuring the particle to be in the state \phi_n. But in these two cases, we will get different a_n^2 indicating that the two states are physically different.

Can anyone point out my mistake?
 
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Advice:read more on Fourier series.U could see post #5 from here https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?p=571801#post571801 which deals exactly with a function of type \psi in your problem.

Your problem should reduce to the question:does the fundamental state \phi_{1}-which has the lowest possible energy-have a nonzero probability ...?

U'll need to compute the Fourier coefficients of that wavefunction (whose sq.moduli give probabilities),so that's why i advised you to read.

Daniel.
 
nd said:
Now correct me if I'm wrong, but is it not true that \psi(x)=A for x\in (0,a) represents the same state since only the square of the wavefunction is given significance?

No, that is not true. It is not because |psi1|^2 = |psi2|^2 that psi1 and psi2 represent the same physical states. In order for two descriptions A and B to represent the same physical state, you have to have that ALL POSSIBLE measurements cannot make any difference. |psi1| = |psi2| only means that all possible POSITION measurements cannot make a difference. But a momentum measurement can, for instance.

cheers,
Patrick.
 
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