Weird Dot Product Homework Q: Unusual Answer?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the line integral of a vector function defined as m(x(t), y(t)) = r = (s^t cos(t), e^t sin(t)). The original poster expresses confusion regarding the results obtained from two different approaches to the integral, questioning the validity of their first method compared to the second.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to compute the line integral using two different formulations, leading to differing results. Some participants question the definitions of the vectors involved and the nature of the integrals being compared. Others seek clarification on the process of finding line integrals when dealing with scalar and vector functions.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the differences between the two integrals and discussing the implications of their results. There is an ongoing inquiry into the correctness of the methods used and the assumptions made about the integrals. Some guidance has been offered regarding the interpretation of the vectors and the calculations involved.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be confusion regarding the equivalence of the two integrals and the assumptions made about the vector and scalar functions involved. The original poster mentions discrepancies in results and references external validation from tools like Wolfram Alpha.

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Homework Statement


i have the vector m(x(t), y(t)) = r = (s^t cos(t), e^t sin(t)) and want to find the line integral of it

Homework Equations


1. \int m \centerdot r' dt
2. \int |m| |r'| dt

The Attempt at a Solution


the answer is sqrt(2)/2 (e^pi - 1). when i do the problem the first way, i do not get the sqrt(2)
When i do the problem the first way, the answer is wrong, but when i do it the second way, it is correct.

is the first way even correct? i am told it is, but wolfram alpha is agreeing with me
 
Last edited:
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what are m and r, what are the answers you are getting?
 
The two integrals are different, why should you get the same result ?

I did the first, assuming m is the vector
m = e^t cos\textsl{t}\ \vec{i}+e^t sin\textsl{t}\ \vec{j}

\int_{0}^{\pi \over 2} m\cdot m' dt = {e^\pi \over 2}- {1 \over 2 }

One the second one it is likely a sqrt to pop up.
 
so the integrals are different. So why did someone who learned this already tell me these two are the same?

thats the answer I am getting.

thanks!
 
can someone clarify this for me?:

given r(t) is a vector, how do you find the line integral if f(x(t),(y(t)) returns a scalar? A vector? do you always get 2 scalars (magnitude of f and magnitude of r' ) and multiply them? do you take the gradient if f is scalar and then dot deL_f and r' ?
 

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