What am I missing in the derivation of Landé g factor?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the derivation of the Landé g factor, specifically focusing on the transition from the expression involving angular momentum vectors to the total angular momentum. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the application of Hund's rules and the relationships between the angular momentum vectors.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the derivation steps and questions the application of Hund's rules in the context of angular momentum. Some participants clarify the distinction between angular momentum vectors and their corresponding quantum numbers, while others emphasize the need to consider the operators involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion has seen participants providing clarifications regarding the relationships between angular momentum vectors and quantum numbers. While the original poster has expressed some resolution of confusion, there is still an ongoing exploration of the assumptions and definitions involved in the derivation.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the lecture notes may lack clarity, particularly in the explanation of the relationships between the angular momentum vectors and the application of Hund's rules. There is an acknowledgment of the need for careful consideration of the operators in the context of quantum mechanics.

Otterhoofd
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Homework Statement



I was looking the calculation of Landé g factor. It starts with

[tex]\mu=-\frac{e}{2m_{e}} (\vec{L}+2\vec{S})[/tex] assuming that g of electron =2

The lecture notes then proceed by calculating [tex]g=1+\frac{J(J+1)+S(S+1)-L(L+1)}{2J(J+1)}[/tex] using the cosine rule.

Homework Equations


the second equation is
[tex]\mu=-\frac{e}{2m_{e}} (\vec{J}+\vec{S})[/tex] using [tex]\vec{L}=\vec{J}-\vec{S}[/tex]

which is, i think, just applying the third hund's rule J=L+S
However, the third Hund's rule also states that for less than half filled
[tex]J=\left|L-S\right|[/tex]

This then does not give the well known solution posted above. What am i doing wrong? The rest of the calculation is perfectly clear to me, I just don't get the step from
[tex]\mu=-\frac{e}{2m_{e}} (\vec{L}+2\vec{S})[/tex] to [tex]\mu=-\frac{e}{2m_{e}} (\vec{J}+\vec{S})[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


Tried various vector equations, but no luck. Please help me, I'm really stuck. I hope and think there is a simple solution! thanks.
 
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[tex]\vec{J}[/tex], [tex]\vec{L}[/tex], and [tex]\vec{S}[/tex] are angular momentum vectors. They're not the same as the quantum numbers j, l, and s. The vector and corresponding quantum number are related by

[tex]\vec{J}^2 = j(j+1)\hbar^2[/tex]

with analogous relationships for [tex]\vec{L}[/tex] and [tex]\vec{S}[/tex].

[tex]\vec{J}[/tex] is the total angular momentum of the electron, which is just the sum of the orbital angular momentum [tex]\vec{L}[/tex] and its spin [tex]\vec{S}[/tex].
 
vela said:
The vector and corresponding quantum number are related by

[tex]\vec{J}^2 = j(j+1)\hbar^2[/tex]

with analogous relationships for [tex]\vec{L}[/tex] and [tex]\vec{S}[/tex].

Not really. The relationship is actually

[tex] \vec{J}^2|j,m\rangle=j(j+1)\hbar^2|j,m\rangle[/tex]

and similarly for [itex]\vec{L}[/itex] and [itex]\vec{S}[/itex]. Recall that they are operators and you need to operate them on something to get the quantum numbers.
 
jdwood983 said:
Not really. The relationship is actually

[tex] \vec{J}^2|j,m\rangle=j(j+1)\hbar^2|j,m\rangle[/tex]

and similarly for [itex]\vec{L}[/itex] and [itex]\vec{S}[/itex]. Recall that they are operators and you need to operate them on something to get the quantum numbers.
D'oh! Yes, you're right of course. I was sloppy.
 
Thanks, i already thought this had to be the case. Explanation in my lecture notes is a bit sloppy I think.

Thanks for your explanation, everything is clear to me again!
 

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