- #1
Nanyang
- 33
- 0
Many authors seem to start deriving the Lorentz transformations (for a motions only in one direction) by first stating that the transformation equations have to be linear, and I am always lost at this part. What do they mean by that? How does "a uniform rectilinear motion in K must also be uniform and rectilinear in K' " explain that?
Many thanks in advance for the help and apologies if this has been raised many times.
Many thanks in advance for the help and apologies if this has been raised many times.