Many authors seem to start deriving the Lorentz transformations (for a motions only in one direction) by first stating that the transformation equations have to be linear, and I am always lost at this part. What do they mean by that? How does "a uniform rectilinear motion in K must also be uniform and rectilinear in K' " explain that?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Many thanks in advance for the help and apologies if this has been raised many times.

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# What does it mean if a transformation is 'linear'?

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