Undergrad What happens when we replace the Dirac Delta function with a sine function?

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Replacing the Dirac Delta function δ(x) with δ(sin(ωx)) results in infinite spikes at points where ωx is an odd multiple of π/2, specifically at x = (2k + 1)π/(2ω) for integer k, and zero elsewhere. The discussion emphasizes that the Dirac delta is a distribution, not a function, and its value is determined when integrated. The integral of δ(sin(ωx))f(x) can be evaluated using substitution, leading to an answer that sums the values of f(x) at the relevant multiples of π/ω within the integration limits. This highlights the relationship between the sine function's zeroes and the behavior of the Dirac delta function in this context. Understanding this replacement requires careful consideration of the properties of distributions in mathematical analysis.
Kyle Nemeth
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If we were to replace δ(x), the orginal Dirac Delta, with δ(sin(ωx)), what would be the result?

Would we have an infinite spike everywhere on the graph of sinx where x is a multiple integer of π/ω? and 0 everywhere else?

I apologize in advance if I had posted in the wrong category.
 
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Kyle Nemeth said:
If we were to replace δ(x), the orginal Dirac Delta, with δ(sin(ωx)), what would be the result?

Would we have an infinite spike everywhere on the graph of sinx where x is a multiple integer of π/ω? and 0 everywhere else?
Seems reasonable that ##\delta(\sin(\omega x))## would be infinite wherever ##\omega x## is an odd multiple of ##\pi/2##, and zero everywhere else. In other words, where ##x = \frac{(2k + 1)\pi}{2\omega}##, with k in the integers.
 
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Yes. For a fuction ##f(x)## with a countable set of zeroes ##x_i##, it holds that
$$
\delta(f(x)) = \sum_i \frac{\delta(x-x_i)}{|f’(x_i)|}
$$
 
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Mark44 said:
Seems reasonable that ##\delta(\sin(\omega x))## would be infinite wherever ##\omega x## is an odd multiple of ##\pi/2##, and zero everywhere else. In other words, where ##x = \frac{(2k + 1)\pi}{2\omega}##, with k in the integers.
The zeroes of the sine function are integer multiples of pi.
 
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Thank you guys for answering my question. Very much appreciated.
 
Speaking very loosely, the answer is yes.

Speaking more carefully, the dirac delta is a distribution, not a function, and only gives a value when included in an integral. That is
##\int_a^b\delta(x)f(x)dx## is equal to ##f(0)## if ##a\leq 0 \leq b## and to zero otherwise. So your question could be expressed more precisely as:
what is the value of ##\int_a^b \delta(\sin\omega x)f(x)dx##?

This can be answered by substitution. Set ##u=\sin\omega x## so that ##du=\omega\cos x\,dx=\omega\sqrt{1-u^2}\,dx##. Then the Dirac delta part of the integrand becomes just ##\delta(u)##.

We'll end up with an answer that is equal to the sum of the values of ##f(x)## for all values of ##x## in ##[a,b]## that are multiples of ##\pi/\omega##.
 
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Orodruin said:
The zeroes of the sine function are integer multiples of pi.
Doh!
 

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