What is an inertial frame? A conflict of two definitions

AI Thread Summary
An inertial frame is commonly defined as one in which Newton's Laws are valid, particularly the first law, which states that an object remains at rest or moves at a constant velocity unless acted upon by a force. A conflicting definition suggests an inertial frame is one where no forces act, which raises questions about its validity since forces cannot act on a reference frame itself. The discussion highlights that while forces may not be present, the frame can still be approximated as inertial under certain conditions. The debate also touches on the implications of rotating frames and the role of forces in defining inertial frames. Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the need for clarity in definitions and the relationship between forces and inertial frames.
Trying2Learn
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Good Morning

(I see this has been discussed here, but I am more interested in two specific definitions and whether the conflict.)
  1. I had always thought that the definition of an inertial frame was: "A frame in which Newton's Laws are valid."
  2. A person has been arguing with me that the definition is: "one on which no forces act."
I am not entirely sure I agree with this second definition. On the one hand, it does sort of derive from the first, but is it an "if and only if" situation?

(I would like to exclude from this the case where there ARE forces acting, but they are equal and opposite so that the effective force is zero, while still being forces.)

For example, I could have a frame where forces DO act, but they are sufficiently negligible so that I can approximate the frame as inertial. But I am not entirely sure that invalidates the second definition

Could someone please help me out?
 
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Trying2Learn said:
Summary:: Define an inertial frame

(I see this has been discussed here, but I am more interested in two specific definitions and whether the conflict.)
  1. I had always thought that the definition of an inertial frame was: "A frame in which Newton's Laws are valid."
  2. A person has been arguing with me that the definition is: "one on which no forces act."

Forces cannot act on a reference frame, so definition 2 makes no sense.
 
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Trying2Learn said:
I had always thought that the definition of an inertial frame was: "A frame in which Newton's Laws are valid."

Not all the three laws in all but only the first one, the law of inertial motion.

At first we admit there exist FREE BODIES. IFR is the frame of reference where free bodies move at a constant speed including zero speed case (at rest). We find a IFR itself is moving at a constant speed in another IFR. Force is defined as generator of acceleration in IFR, that is Newton's second law of motion.
 
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anuttarasammyak said:
Not all the three laws in all but only the first one, the law of inertial motion.

At first we admit there exist FREE BODIES. IFR is the frame of reference where free bodies move at a constant speed including zero speed case (at rest). We find a IFR itself is moving at a constant speed in another IFR. Force is defined as generator of acceleration in IFR, that is Newton's second law of motion.
Thank you, and to A.T.

For A.T.: I think this person would suggest there is an isomorphic map between a body and the frame layered upon it (I am trying to put myself in their mind).

However, while anuttarasammyak gets to teh core of the issue, I would actually say this as an example.

Consider a Merry-Go-Round operating a full speed (no longer any driving moments to increase the angular velocity; ignoring gravity). On such a device, Newton's F=ma does not hold due to the introduction of terms historically deemed "fictitious." So, here is a frame with no forces acting on it, yet one which is not inertial.

Finally for anuttarasammyak . Why do you harp on the first law and not the second. I can understand your referencing the first law, but the actual operation involves the second law. In fact, as I read your response, I almost want to remove the first law of motion and elevate to a definition. Could you share your thoughts?
 
Trying2Learn said:
Finally for @anuttarasammyak . Why do you harp on the first law and not the second. I can understand your referencing the first law, but the actual operation involves the second law. In fact, as I read your response, I almost want to remove the first law of motion and elevate to a definition. Could you share your thoughts?

The second law is, wiki says for an example,
------------------
Second law: In an inertial frame of reference, the vector sum of the forces F on an object is equal to the mass m of that object multiplied by the acceleration a of the object: F = ma.
-----------------
You see force is defined by acceleration in IFR, NOT the reverse, i.e.
IFR is NOT defined by (zero) force on a body.

IFR is defined by force, force is defined by IFR, IFR is defined by force, force is ..., it is a chicken or egg sequence.
 
Trying2Learn said:
For A.T.: I think this person would suggest there is an isomorphic ma
A single object does not define a frame, not without auxiliary assumptions. What you could say is that an inertial frame is one in which any object whose spatial coordinates are independent of time is one on which no net force acts. That disposes of the rotating frame attached to your merry-go-round - just put a ball on top of it and watch its coordinates change.
 
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Thank you everyone!
 
Ibix said:
What you could say is that an inertial frame is one in which any object whose spatial coordinates are independent of time is one on which no net force acts.
That isn't enough, actually. You need to insist on the more general rule that any object with constant coordinate speed be subject to no net force. Otherwise you could define an anisotropic coordinate grid and things moving at constant ##d\vec x/dt## would need to be accelerated.
 
anuttarasammyak said:
Not all the three laws in all but only the first one, the law of inertial motion.
I do not agree with this. If we restrict our attention to the first law only then rotating frames are inertial.

The only object subject to zero net force is one continuously at rest at the center. It is subject to no net force and remains at rest. The first law is upheld for that object and does not apply to any other.

The third law is useful to exclude such frames from consideration.
 
  • #10
Trying2Learn said:
Summary:: Define an inertial frame

I am not entirely sure I agree with this second definition.
I heartily disagree with it. A reference frame is a mathematical construct, either a coordinate system or a tetrad field depending on the context. Either way, it has no mass and therefore never has any forces acting on it.
 
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  • #11
jbriggs444 said:
If we restrict our attention to the first law only then rotating frames are inertial.
Ref. Wiki
-------------------
First law In an inertial frame of reference, an object either remains at rest or continues to move at a constant velocity, unless acted upon by a force.[2][3]
------------------

You are right if "an object remains at rest or.. " here is meaning " there exist at least one object that remains at rest or ... ". I would like to take it as "any object at rest or ... ".
 
  • #12
anuttarasammyak said:
Ref. Wiki
-------------------
First law In an inertial frame of reference, an object either remains at rest or continues to move at a constant velocity, unless acted upon by a force.[2][3]
------------------

You are right if "an object remains at rest or.. " here is meaning " there exist at least one object that remains at rest or ... ". I would like to take it as "any object at rest or ... ".
In a rotating frame, the First law as stated above holds. The relevant clause is "unless acted upon by a force". In a uniformly rotating frame there are Coriolis and centrifugal forces. The only object not acted upon by a force is an object stationary in the center. That object remains at rest.

The third law is not upheld. The Coriolis and centrifugal forces have no third law partner.
 
  • #13
jbriggs444 said:
The relevant clause is "unless acted upon by a force".
I would like to take "unless acted upon by a force" here as "free motion" or "motion of no constraint" without using the word "force" that also appears in the 2nd law after the definition of IFR. Mach and other scientists have made serious thoughts about what is force that I cannot follow fully.

In a rotating system particles of free motion do not move with constant speeds, except it stay at rest at center, so we know that rotating system is not a IFR.
 
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  • #14
anuttarasammyak said:
I would like to take "unless acted upon by a force" here as "free motion" or "motion of no constraint" without using the word "force" that also appears in the 2nd law after the definition of IFR. Mach and other scientists have made serious thoughts about what is force that I cannot follow fully.
That is where Newton's second and third laws come in. To define what you mean by force.
In a rotating system particles of free motion do not move with constant speeds, except it stay at rest at center, so we know that rotating system is not a IFR.
The only particle free of force is one at rest in the center. It stays at rest. Hence the rotating frame is inertial by your definition.
 
  • #15
I love this web site. I love how I can ask questions to make up for what I did not learn properly.

And how people jump in and disagree with each other and it is all polite.

It is a rest from a weary world.

And thanks again.
 
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  • #16
Dale said:
I heartily disagree with it. A reference frame is a mathematical construct, either a coordinate system or a tetrad field depending on the context. Either way, it has no mass and therefore never has any forces acting on it.
I heartily disagree with that ;-)).

A reference frame is something very concrete in the lab. In Newtonian mechanics it's easy to define by e.g., putting up three rigid rods fixed at a point defining a right-handed Cartesian coordinate system in the lab. Whether or not these three rods define an inertial frame must be decided experimentally. For that to be true any free particle must run with constant velocity given by its initial velocity, no matter in which direction this velocity points (a particle at rest relative to this reference frame is a special case, i.e., if ##\vec{v}=0##).
 
  • #17
vanhees71 said:
A reference frame is something very concrete in the lab.
If that were true then you couldn’t change reference frames through mathematical operations. Changing reference frames would require changing those very concrete things in the lab.
 
  • #18
Why? You can take the active standpoint for transformations (which makes the mathematical formalism a description of a physical description btw.): The transformations describe how the same physical situation changes when using two different frames of reference.

E.g., you can ask, how the motion of a free particle looks from the point of view of Alice sitting at rest wrt. an inertial reference frame (for her it's simple, because it just keeps moving with a constant velocity) and how it looks from the point of view of Bob, who's using a "rigid-rod-reference frame" sitting in a merry-go-around.

For Alice the equation of motion simply reads
$$m \ddot{\vec{x}}_{\text{A}}=0,$$
while for Bob it reads
$$m \ddot{\vec{x}}_{\text{B}} + 2 m \vec{\omega}_{\text{B}} \times \dot{\vec{x}}_{\text{B}} + m \vec{\omega}_{\text{B}} \times (\vec{\omega}_{\text{B}} \times \vec{x}_{\text{B}})=0.$$
So it's much more complicated for Bob to describe the motion in his non-inertial (rotating) frame.

Nevertheless the math tells how it's described for two very concretely chosen physical frames of reference. Of course it's not the math that changes the reference frames but the concrete realization using three rigid rods either by Alice or Bob, who is rotating relative to Alice.
 
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  • #19
vanhees71 said:
...it's easy to define by e.g., putting up three rigid rods fixed at a point defining a right-handed Cartesian coordinate system in the lab.
You know what's even easier? Defining your coordinate systems without building a stick model for each of them.
 
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  • #20
vanhees71 said:
The transformations describe how the same physical situation changes when using two different frames of reference
Since it is “the same physical system” that means that nothing physical changed. Therefore the reference frames are not physical.

You can build a bunch of sticks and I am free to use a reference frame where those sticks are moving. I am free to do that because the sticks are not the reference frame.

Another good example of how a reference frame is mathematical and not concrete is the GPS. The GPS system uses Earth centered inertial coordinates (among others) even though no part of the system is at rest in that frame. There is nothing “very concrete” you can point to and say “that very concrete thing is the Earth centered inertial frame”.
 
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  • #21
A.T. said:
You know what's even easier? Defining your coordinate systems without building a stick model for each of them.
As I said, that's only the most direct and simple example, but what do you have in mind?
 
  • #22
Dale said:
Since it is “the same physical system” that means that nothing physical changed. Therefore the reference frames are not physical.

You can build a bunch of sticks and I am free to use a reference frame where those sticks are moving. I am free to do that because the sticks are not the reference frame.

Another good example of how a reference frame is mathematical and not concrete is the GPS. The GPS system uses Earth centered inertial coordinates (among others) even though no part of the system is at rest in that frame. There is nothing “very concrete” you can point to and say “that very concrete thing is the Earth centered inertial frame”.
What physically changed was that Bob sits in an accelerated frame. The investigated system of course doesn't change (as long as the interaction between the measurement devices and the system of the different observers can be neglected, but that's no problem within classical physics of macroscopic bodies).

What I don't understand is that you don't want to define a reference frame as a physical object but a mere mathematical fiction. Without a realization of this mathematical fiction in terms of real-world measurement devices, it's not clear how to relate the mathematical fiction (choosing a reference point and a basis in an affine space) with real-world measurements, which need to be done in a well-defined physical reference frame. It's always defined by the experimental setup. Usually it's so self-evident that we don't need to think much about it, but still it's defined by real-world physical objects.

The GPS is a good example. First it is defined by setting a bunch of satellites into orbit defining with there relative positions and their position to Earth the reference frame, which of course is "reconstructed" in terms of earth-centered reference frame, and that's very concrete, at least concrete enough that you find your way within a resolution of a few meters!
 
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  • #23
The frame of reference corresponds to a physical state of motion of observers at rest in the frame. You define an affine base space (e.g. a Euclidian space for classical physics), and to define a coordinate system you choose within it an origin and a set of basis vectors. You require ##N+1## physical reference points in order to position and orient the coordinate system.

So the coordinate system is abstract, but you must still establish it physically :wink:. E.g. "a right-handed coordinate system with the origin in the corner of the lab, and the three axes along the three edges". Otherwise you can't make measurements.

The choice of reference frame and coordinate system does not affect natural phenomena (e.g. my TV still works if I run around it) but it does affect whether I need to include inertial forces in NII and what values I calculate for certain quantities.
 
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  • #24
etotheipi said:
The frame of reference corresponds to a physical state of motion of observers at rest in the frame.
If you mean actual physical observers, then no: You don't need to have any actual physical observers at rest in a reference frame.

etotheipi said:
You define an affine base space (e.g. a Euclidian space for classical physics), and to define a coordinate system you choose within it an origin and a set of basis vectors. You require ##N+1## physical reference points in order to position and orient the coordinate system.
Why N+1? In 3D you require only 3 points, if you are using points only.

etotheipi said:
So the coordinate system is abstract, but you must still establish it physically.
You must relate the reference frame to physical objects, but none of these objects has to be at rest in that reference frame.
 
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  • #25
A.T. said:
If you mean actual physical observers, then no: You don't need to have any actual physical observers at rest in a reference frame.

Right, sure. But a reference frame is associated with a state of motion, which goes hand-in-hand with the idea of a team of hypothetical "point-like observers" at rest in the frame.

A.T. said:
Why ##N+1##? In 3D you require only 3 points, if you are using points only.

In N-dimensional space we require an origin + N basis vectors. E.g. in 1D we need two points; one to specify the origin, the other to orient the positive ##\hat{x}## direction.

A.T. said:
You must relate the reference frame to physical objects, but none of these objects has to be at rest in that reference frame.

Sure, they don't need to be. The key part is that you can position and orient the coordinate system physically.
 
  • #26
etotheipi said:
Right, sure. But a reference frame is associated with a state of motion, which goes hand-in-hand with the idea of a team of hypothetical "point-like observers" at rest in the frame.
The key word being "hypothetical".

etotheipi said:
In N-dimensional space we require an origin + N basis vectors. E.g. in 1D we need two points; one to specify the origin, the other to orient the positive ##\hat{x}## direction.
You don't need a point for each basis vector. For the third basis vector you can use the cross product of the other two basis vectors.
 
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  • #27
A.T. said:
You don't need a point for each basis vector. For the third basis vector you can use the cross product of the other two basis vectors.

Point taken :wink:.

I suppose we need not constrain our third basis vector to be orthogonal to the other two.
 
  • #28
Might I point out that much of this conversation conjures the Platonic notion of a coordinate system? This seems an odd thing to discuss in a physics forum.
 
  • #29
vanhees71 said:
What I don't understand is that you don't want to define a reference frame as a physical object but a mere mathematical fiction.
Because that is what it is.
vanhees71 said:
Without a realization of this mathematical fiction in terms of real-world measurement devices, it's not clear how to relate the mathematical fiction (choosing a reference point and a basis in an affine space) with real-world measurements, which need to be done in a well-defined physical reference frame. It's always defined by the experimental setup. Usually it's so self-evident that we don't need to think much about it, but still it's defined by real-world physical objects.
Just because the reference frame itself is a mathematical construct does not imply that you cannot define a reference frame based on physical objects. It just means that the reference frame is not the same as those physical objects. That is what I object to.

If the reference frame were a physical concrete object then changing reference frames would imply changing a physical concrete object. For example, the (invariant) mass of an object is a concrete physical quantity. I cannot change the mass without changing the physical concrete object, for example by adding more concrete. A reference frame is not like mass. It is not something concrete in the lab. It is a mathematical quantity and may be changed without changing anything physical.

Please answer the following: do you agree or disagree that you may change reference frames without changing any concrete physical object?

vanhees71 said:
The GPS is a good example.
Ok, so which physical concrete portion of the GPS system is the Earth centered inertial frame, and which physical concrete portion of the GPS system is the Earth centered Earth fixed frame? And what physical part of the GPS system is the sun centered inertial frame? And which concrete physical part is the frame where the Earth is traveling at 0.6 c in the direction of celestial north? And which concrete physical part of the GPS system is the non inertial frame where the Earth is accelerating in the direction of celestial south at a rate of 2 m/s^2? And which concrete physical part of the GPS system is the frame ...

And since each of those different reference frames are different physical concrete objects then what is each different reference frame’s mass and charge and so forth? After all, that is what this thread is actually about.
 
  • #30
Dale said:
Because that is what it is. Just because the reference frame itself is a mathematical construct does not imply that you cannot define a reference frame based on physical objects. It just means that the reference frame is not the same as those physical objects. That is what I object to.

I agree. Reading through the thread I'm not too sure where the disagreement is.

Reference frames, coordinate systems, whatever, are abstract mathematical notions. They obviously do not exist in reality, have no "charge" or "mass", cannot "feel forces", I can't pick it up and throw it across the room, etc.

For it to be of use in physics, the abstract coordinate system must be established using physical references. We might choose the inertial "space frame" of reference and in it establish Earth-Centred Inertial (ECI) coordinates. We might choose the rotating frame of the Earth and in it establish Earth-Centred Earth-Fixed (ECEF) coordinates. In any case, the coordinate system has been positioned and oriented within the frame by physical references, namely the Earth (and in the case of ECI, also the 'fixed backdrop of the stars').

The set of 3 orthonormal rods mentioned earlier are not the coordinate system, I think they're just a pedagogical means of establishing it physically.
 
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  • #31
A.T. said:
You must relate the reference frame to physical objects, but none of these objects has to be at rest in that reference frame.
And none of the physical objects IS the reference frame because you can change the reference frame without changing the physical objects.
 
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  • #32
Ok, we agree to disagree, because I don't know, how you can make sense of an abstract frame of reference in the sense that you can compare it to measurements in the lab. To do so you need to realize an appropriate reference frame.

Take the most simple example of an experiment in high school to demonstrate the rules of free fall, e.g., take this youtube video:



So there's clearly a frame of reference set up in the sense I mentioned. Here of course you need only one "rigid rod" to meausure the hight in direction of ##\vec{g}## and a clock measuring the time of fall, but it's a realization of a reference frame in the lab with physical objects. Without that you couldn't do this simple meausurement.

It's also only to good approximation an inertial reference frame, but not exactly because of the rotation of the Earth, i.e., at higher accuracies you could measure the effect of the Coriolis force etc.
 
  • #33
It is a good question. Is there a difference between a coordinate system and a measuring apparatus?

Does the measuring apparatus only tell you how to obtain the tuple ##(x^1, x^2, x^3)##, whilst the coordinate system is a more abstract notion? Or is a coordinate system just more generally a means of labelling points in space, in which case a set of rulers is the coordinate system?

I personally like the former case more, but I don't know. I suspect it's more of a philosophical issue :wink:.
 
  • #34
vanhees71 said:
Ok, we agree to disagree, because I don't know, how you can make sense of an abstract frame of reference in the sense that you can compare it to measurements in the lab. To do so you need to realize an appropriate reference frame.

Take the most simple example of an experiment in high school to demonstrate the rules of free fall, e.g., take this youtube video:



So there's clearly a frame of reference set up in the sense I mentioned. Here of course you need only one "rigid rod" to meausure the hight in direction of ##\vec{g}## and a clock measuring the time of fall, but it's a realization of a reference frame in the lab with physical objects. Without that you couldn't do this simple meausurement.

It's also only to good approximation an inertial reference frame, but not exactly because of the rotation of the Earth, i.e., at higher accuracies you could measure the effect of the Coriolis force etc.
I notice that you failed to address any of the questions I asked you to address.

The point that you seem to be missing is that clocks and rods are concrete physical objects but a reference frame is something different. I can take one single set of physical objects and define an infinite number of reference frames based on that one set of physical objects. Therefore the reference frame is not the same as the physical objects used to define it.

In particular for the purpose of this thread while clocks and rods have mass and can have forces acting on them reference frames do not have mass and can accelerate without force.

The rod and clock in your video are not a reference frame. They are a rod and a clock and they can be used to define an infinite number of reference frames.
 
  • #35
That I suspect too ;-). I think, it's important to keep the physics in mind. Of course you can do theoretical physics by just talking about mathematical abstract structures, but that's not the entire picture about physics as a natural science, which is about observations of the real world and experiments providing as well as possible idealized conditions to measure certain aspects as accurately as possible with the given means etc.

Newtonian mechanics wouldn't be as successful a theory, describing a lot of everyday experience quite accurately, if it weren't possible to realize "reference frames" which correspond in good approximation with the abstract "coordinate systems". Of course, this is something you explain only in an introductory chapter of a textbook or in a lecture briefly and then just use the formalism to formulate the theory, as long as you learn theoretical physics. It should, however, also be complemented by experimental physics, where you see on a lot of examples, how the laws are checked (or maybe even new laws found) by experiment.

Of course, when you think about a simple experiment like shown in the youtube video about the free fall, nobody starts to deeply think philosophically about the fact that everything starts with establishing a reference frame, because that's so obvious that it seem to be a no-brainer.

But is it really a no-brainer? Newton didn't think so to begin with. He was pretty puzzled by the question, how to establish his absolute space and time, i.e., in modern language, how to realize an inertial reference frame physically. There is the famous discussion of the rotating bucket, with which he wanted to demonstrate that you can distinguish a non-inertial frame from the inertial frame apparently realized as a frame at rest relative to Earth.

Of course he was well aware that it is unlikely that a rest frame on Earth really establishes an exact inertial reference frame, because the Earth rotates around its axis and moves on an elliptic orbit around the Sun. By the way also an example that you need an adequate reference frame, as demonstrated by the history of the issue with the heliocentric vs. the geocentric point of view of how to choose a reference frame. What seems obvious today Copernicus's ingenious idea to use a heliocentric frame of reference was a revolution in the literal sense. It's considered a turning point from ancient to modern natural sciences and it was used by Kepler with success to establish his famous laws of planetary motion (starting from a tedious analysis of the Mars orbit) with a lot of mathematical effort to calcualte the heliocentric coordinates from Brahe's data (of course taken on Earth).

Back to the question about the physical establishment of Newton's absolute space and time. The issue has been an enigma even well until the 20th century. A famous piece in the puzzle is of course Mach's principle, where he conjectured that an inertial reference frame is established by the rest frame of all the fixed stars and that inertia is indeed somehow related to the interactions of the object under consideration with all masses in the universe.

The status today, I'd say, is the point of view provided by Einsteins General Relativity, according to which an inertial frame can only be established locally by a reference frame at rest wrt. a freely falling small non-rotating volume (small compared to typical distances across which you can still neglect inhomogeneities of the gravitational field and thus tidal forces, which of course always again is a question of the accuracy you look at this field). An example is the ISS, which is the best microgravity lab there is today (one speaks today rather about "microgravity" than "free of gravity" or "weightlessness"). For me that's quite contrary to Mach's principle, because it's rather a local resolution than the idea that inertia is due to the interactions of the objects under consideration with all the masses in the universe. It's rather the reinterpretation of the gravitational field or rather potential in terms of a pseudo-Riemanian fundamental form of spacetime, which let's you "construct" a locally inertial reference frame by letting a very small non-rotating volume fall freely (i.e., moving along a geodesic in pseudo-Riemannian spacetime).
 
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  • #36
Dale said:
I notice that you failed to address any of the questions I asked you to address.

The point that you seem to be missing is that clocks and rods are concrete physical objects but a reference frame is something different. I can take one single set of physical objects and define an infinite number of reference frames based on that one set of physical objects. Therefore the reference frame is not the same as the physical objects used to define it.

In particular for the purpose of this thread while clocks and rods have mass and can have forces acting on them reference frames do not have mass and can accelerate without force.

The rod and clock in your video are not a reference frame. They are a rod and a clock and they can be used to define an infinite number of reference frames.
Maybe it's again a language problem. For you it seems as if a reference frame is only a coordinate system in the theory but for me it has to be an object realized by the meausurement apparatus. A massless reference frame doesn't exist as you say yourself. In that sense light-cone coordinates in relativity are mathematical calculational tools that cannot be realized in experiment.

In the video for me the rod and the clock establish a reference frame. That you can calculate the coordinates of the falling ball in any other coordinate system, be it realized by another observer or not, is of course not a problem in any sense.
 
  • #37
vanhees71 said:
For you it seems as if a reference frame is only a coordinate system in the theory...
More like a set of coordinate systems with constant relative transformations.
vanhees71 said:
... for me it has to be an object realized by the meausurement apparatus
That's not the standard use of the term, as far as I know.
 
  • #38
I have no objection to the importance of experiment in physics. What I object to is identifying the reference frame with the measurement devices.

vanhees71 said:
In the video for me the rod and the clock establish a reference frame.
Without adding or changing any physical material, is a reference frame where that same rod and clock are accelerating also a valid reference frame? Is a reference frame where that same rod and clock are moving horizontally at a constant velocity also a valid reference frame? How about one where it is rotating?

Please do not avoid answering this question directly this time. State clearly your opinion about the validity of multiple reference frames for a single physical setup.
 
  • #39
etotheipi said:
I suppose we need not constrain our third basis vector to be orthogonal to the other two.
The cross product was just an example, that 3 points can be sufficient. If you include time in your definition, 2 points can be sufficient as well.
 
  • #40
A.T. said:
The cross product was just an example, that 3 points can be sufficient. If you include time in your definition, 2 points can be sufficient as well.

So N+1 points are always sufficient, but not necessary. Less than or equal to N points might be sufficient depending on the context.
 
  • #41
Dale said:
I have no objection to the importance of experiment in physics. What I object to is identifying the reference frame with the measurement devices.

Without adding or changing any physical material, is a reference frame where that same rod and clock are accelerating also a valid reference frame? Is a reference frame where that same rod and clock are moving horizontally at a constant velocity also a valid reference frame? How about one where it is rotating?

Please do not avoid answering this question directly this time. State clearly your opinion about the validity of multiple reference frames for a single physical setup.
Of course all these are legitimate frames of rererence. Why shouldn't they be?
 
  • #42
vanhees71 said:
Of course all these are legitimate frames of rererence. Why shouldn't they be?
Then it is logically impossible to claim “A reference frame is something very concrete”. Nothing concrete changed. If you can change reference frames without changing anything concrete then the reference frame cannot be “something very concrete”

You cannot have it both ways. If it is something concrete then changing it requires making concrete changes. If you can change it without making concrete changes (as you agree) then it cannot be something concrete.
 
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  • #43
I think I don't understand your objection against the fact that any measurement must define a reference frame by its very setup, and why do you think that any of the in my opinion possible physical reference frame is less concrete than any other. You can realize very different reference frames observing the same phenomena. I can obseve the moon on Earth at the same time as do the astronauts at thd ISS. I'm in a different reference frame than the astronauts, but neither frame is more or less legitimate than the other, and we'll agree on what we observe, because we can transform from the results of the moon's coordinates of position. velocity, etc. wrt. each of these reference frames.
 
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  • #44
vanhees71 said:
I'm in a different reference frame than the astronauts,
So now reference frames are boxes that contain some things, but not others?
 
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  • #45
No to the contrary. As I said all of Dale's examples can well be provide well-defined reference frames, though some are not inertial frames.
 
  • #46
vanhees71 said:
As I said all of Dale's examples can well be provide well-defined reference frames,
If you can simply define as many reference frames as you wish, then they are not physical objects themselves, even if physical objects are being referenced in their definition.
 
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  • #47
vanhees71 said:
I think I don't understand your objection against the fact that any measurement must define a reference frame by its very setup
I can make and report a measurement: "the needle on my accelerometer dial hit 10.5" without ever defining a reference frame.
 
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  • #48
I don't think the terminology "concrete" being used here means "something you can hold in your hand". It just pertains to how you establish the reference frame.

We can speak of the rest frame of a moving car, or the rest frame of the space station, or the rest frame of the moon. Those are all quite concrete notions in my view. Each defines a state of motion, i.e. an infinite grid of hypothetical point-like observers who share the same rigid body motion (this part only applies to classical physics, with SR we can only get Born rigidity!). The measuring apparatus in the "finding-g" experiment defines a perfectly good (approximately) inertial reference frame.

On the other hand, some choices of reference frames are more abstract. We might speak of a frame rotating at some arbitrary angular velocity ##\vec{\omega}## about a fixed axis. Or a reference frame accelerating at ##\vec{a}## w.r.t. the thing being studied. These are not as "concrete" as the previous examples, in a sense, because now we're not "attaching" our reference frame to anything as obvious per se. and we're abstracting away some practical details.

All of them allow you to construct a coordinate system. Is it worth losing sleep over this? The term "reference frame" is so ill-defined from what I've come across anyways (apart from maybe some way more complex explanations to do with fiber-bundles, which I don't understand at all :wink:).
 
  • #49
vanhees71 said:
You can realize very different reference frames observing the same phenomena.
Yes. Because the reference frame is not physical. It is not concrete. If it were then you could only realize one reference frame.

I think your terminology here is absurd. Do you know what concrete is? Maybe this is a language barrier. Concrete is a mixture of cement and rock which is hardened to form roads, buildings, foundations, dams, and even military fortifications.

Its connotation in English is something solid, strong, inflexible, definite. The connotation of concrete is completely incompatible with the flexibility of “You can realize very different reference frames observing the same phenomena”. Maybe you don’t intend this self contradiction, but in English you are simply contradicting yourself.

vanhees71 said:
I'm in a different reference frame than the astronauts,
No, you are not in a different reference frame. This is terminology I expect to hear from novices, not an expert like you. Both you and the astronauts are in all global reference frames.

vanhees71 said:
because we can transform from the results of the moon's coordinates of position. velocity, etc. wrt. each of these reference frames.
If a mathematical operation allows you to change between reference frames then reference frames are mathematical. You cannot have it both ways.
 
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  • #50
A.T. said:
If you can simply define as many reference frames as you wish, then they are not physical objects themselves, even if physical objects are being referenced in their definition.
The ruler and the stop watch in the quoted youtube movie about the measurement of ##g## is a very concrete realization of a reference frame by physical objects. It's one of many possible realizations of the abstract concept of a reference frame.

Mathematically in Newtonian mechanics any reference frame that provides (at least locally) a one-to-one mapping to the coordinates defined in any inertial frame is a valid reference frame. Whether or not you can realize it by a measurement setup in reality is a different question.
 
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