masudr said:
You conveniently didn't consider the part of my post discussing how I was responding to the problem of "what occurs between measurements" by taking the Feynman formalism seriously.
Exactly what problem you have with that, or why you are even telling me I'm wrong, or even that you have any problem with that at all, I don't know.
Why did you disagree? From what I know, this is precisely what the Feynman formalism indicates. Perhaps I am wrong on that. Am I?
After second thought, perhaps, you are right and my response was not adequate. Indeed, it is your question and definitely not mine. It is legitimate, but I am not qualified enough to discuss it (however, I doubt that this is precisely what the Feynman formalism indicates). Each one of us brings his/her interests and individuality into discussion.
I never was interested in questions related to the formal equivalence of the different mathematical descriptions of the same physical phenomena. For me, it is like different human languages, it is obvious that the numerous mathematical frameworks exist that describe the same thing. I even think that something wrong with Dirac demonstration of the non-equivalence of the Heisenberg and Schrödinger pictures in the relativistic QM.
Perhaps, my reaction was connected with the psychological trauma of the “childhood”. Sorry. During my PhD studies my supervisor whom I deeply respect (he was former PhD student of J. Schwinger with extensive knowledge and virtuosity in the functional analysis) was convinced that the content of my investigation is pointless since it was “proven” that it is equivalent to the standard formulation (E.P.Wigner never accept that). He required doing something much more complicated (E6 GUT enclosure into C7 Clifford algebra framework) with the physical motivation completely obscured for me. I remember that we even quarreled with him: in order to drop him from my back, I said that I am a primitive mind and not able to consider anything more complicated than the next numerical system (after that accident he call me Simplicio).
I did not even identify your question, but equally well you did not identify mine. I am relatively foreigner in the low energy region; my “natural” environment is hep-th: elementary particles physics. I came here to PF several months ago with the only purpose: to understand better the role of the coherent states.
My last paper concerns not with QM but with the wave mechanical reformulation of the classical mechanics using J. von Neumann conjecture that it is dispersion free physical theory. The astonishing and the totally unexpected result was that the basis of the corresponding Hilbert space is
unique (rigid). So, what it is? It is clear that they should be Gaussians which allow the discontinuous transition from delta x*delta p > h/2 to delta x*delta p = 0. Intuitively, the most suitable candidates are the coherent states. Therefore, I am looking into QM to understand from where they come into the game. I do not think that this is trivial; in addition, that what I see eventually in the single photon/electron experiments of A.Aspect and A.Tonomura.
Regards, Dany.