What is the 1D Fourier transform of the function e^{-\lambda x^{2}}?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the Fourier transform of a function defined in terms of a symmetric positive definite matrix and its relation to a simpler case involving the function e^{-\lambda x^{2}}. Participants are exploring the mathematical properties and transformations associated with these functions.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to manipulate the expression for the Fourier transform and are considering diagonalization of the matrix to simplify the problem. Some are exploring the implications of changing variables and using properties of integrals.

Discussion Status

There are multiple lines of reasoning being explored, with some participants suggesting simpler approaches and others delving into more complex manipulations. Guidance has been offered regarding the diagonalization of the matrix and the treatment of the one-dimensional case, but no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of the problem statement, which involves specific properties of the matrix and the function. There is a noted reliance on known results for the Fourier transform of simpler functions, which may influence the direction of the discussion.

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Homework Statement


Let A be a real, symmetric positively definite nxn - matrix.
[tex]f:\mathbb{R}^{n}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}\; s.t\;\vec{x}\rightarrow e^{-\frac{1}{2}<\vec{x},A\vec{x}>}[/tex]
Show that the FT of f is given by:
[tex]\hat{f}(\vec{k})=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\det A}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}<\vec{k},A^{-1}\vec{k}>}[/tex]

Homework Equations


If I'm not very much mistaken:
[tex]\hat{f}(\vec{k})=\int_{\mathbb{R}^{n}}f(\vec{x})e^{-2\pi i<\vec{k},\vec{x}>}d^{n}x[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


Quite honestly I have no idea anymore. I suppose I'm missing sth. quite trivial.
I've tried to change <x,Ax> to [tex]x^tAx[/tex] and doing the same with <k,x> and then multiplying from right by A^-1*x and some more but kept running in circles.
I'm terrible with this matrix-stuff and on the solution of this task depends the solution of another one
 
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Isn't a diagonalisable which would reduce the problem somewhat?

Mat
 
Yep.
I've got that hint by a friend yesterday night which led me to:
[tex]\int e^{-\frac{1}{2}<x,T^{-1}TAT^{-1}Tx>-i<k,T^{-1}Tx>}\Rightarrow\int e^{-\frac{1}{2}<Tx,(TAT^{-1}=D)Tx>-i<Tk,Tx>}\Rightarrow\int e^{-\frac{1}{2}<y,Dy>-i<k',y>}d^{n}y[/tex]

by using that TAT^-1 = D , with D-diagonal. defining y:=Tx, k':=Tk
using dy/dx=|T|=1

then using the representation of Exp as a series
[tex]\int e^{-\frac{1}{2}\sum_{l=0}^{n}d_{ll}y_{l}^{2}}e^{-i<k',y>}d^{n}y\Rightarrow\int e^{-\frac{1}{2}\sum_{l=0}^{n}d_{ll}y_{l}^{2}}\sum_{l=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{l!}(-i<k',y>)^{l}d^{n}y[/tex]

And here I'm stuck again not knowing anymore how it would be possible to simplify this.
 
You're almost there, the n-dim integral can be then split up into a product of n 1-dim integrals, as
[tex] <y,Dy>=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\lambda_{i}y_{i}^{2}\quad <k',y>=\sum_{i=1}^{n}k_{i}'y_{i}[/tex]
Where the [tex]\lambda_{i}[/tex] are the eigenvalues and the integral splits as:
[tex] \int e^{-\frac{1}{2}<y,Dy>-i<k',y>}d^{n}y=\prod_{i=1}^{n}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{1}{2}\lambda_{i}y_{i}^{2}-ik_{i}'y_{i}}dy_{i}[/tex]
 
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You are making this WAY too complicated. Like Mat said, you can work in a basis where A is diagonal. That means f(x) is just a sum of squares of each coordinate times the corresponding diagonal entry. Now you can integrate one coordinates at a time. The only part of the problem that takes a little work is the one-dimensional case where f(x)=exp((-a/2)*x^2). You just have to complete the square in the exponent of the Fourier transform.
 
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Why though? The way known to me to diagonalize a symmetric matrix is TAT^-1 = D
with orthogonal matrix T.
Following is the way I think I've solved it.
Taking off from hunt's equation:

[tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}^{n}}\prod_{s=1}^{n}\int_{\mathbb{R}^{1}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}d_{ss}y_{s}^{2}}e^{-ik'_{s}y_{s}}dy=\prod\sum_{l=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-i)^{l}}{l!}k'_{s}^{l}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int e^{-\frac{1}{2}d_{ss}y_{s}^{2}}y_{s}^{l}dy[/tex]

where I used Mathematica to cheat and check whether the d_ss will come up in the end in the way I guessed and the notes from the lectures giving this (2m) stuff (more human-readable than mathematica's output with Erf and Gamma).

[tex]=\prod\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-i)^{2m}}{2m!}k'_{s}^{2m}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int e^{-\frac{1}{2}d_{ss}y_{s}^{2}}y_{s}^{2m}dy=\prod\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-i)^{2m}}{(2m)!}k'_{s}^{2m}\left(\frac{(2m)!}{d_{ss}^{m}2^{m}\sqrt{d_{ss}}m!}\right)=&\prod_{s=1}^{n}\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{-k_{s}^{2}}{2d_{ss}}\right)^{m}\frac{1}{\sqrt{d_{ss}}m!}=\prod\frac{1}{\sqrt{d_{ss}}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}d_{ss}^{-1}k_{s}'^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]=&\frac{1}{\sqrt{\prod d_{ss}}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}\sum_{s=0}^{n}k'_{s}d_{ss}^{-1}k'_{s}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\det D}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}<k',D^{-1}k'>}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\det A}}e^{-\nicefrac{1}{2}<Tk,(TAT^{-1})^{-1}Tk>}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\det A}}e^{-\nicefrac{1}{2}<k,A^{-1}k>}[/tex]
 
Again this is slightly more complicated than it needs to be. What is the 1D Fourier transform of the function:

[tex] f(x)=e^{-\lambda x^{2}}[/tex]

This is a well known transform which can be found on wikipedia, use this and you're very close to getting the answer.
 

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