What is the Correct Fourier Series for e^x?

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SUMMARY

The correct Fourier series for the function f(x) = e^x over the interval [-π, π] is derived using specific integrals for the coefficients a_n and b_n. The Fourier series is given by S(f,x) = (sinh(π)/π) + (2sinh(π)/π)∑[n=1 to ∞] [(-1)^(n+1)/(1+n^2)](cos(nx) - n sin(nx)). A discrepancy arises between this result and the professor's version, which uses (-1)^n instead of (-1)^(n+1). The error is attributed to a sign mistake in the integral calculations, particularly for odd n values.

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twoflower
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Hi all,

I've been having little problems getting Fourier series of e^x.

I have given

<br /> f(x) = e^{x}, x \in [-\pi, \pi)<br />

Then

<br /> a_0 = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{x}\ dx = \frac{2\sinh \pi}{\pi}<br />

<br /> a_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{x}\cos (nx)\ dx = <br /> <br /> \frac{1}{\pi}\left\{\left[ \frac{1}{n}\ e^{x} \sin (nx)\right]_{-\pi}^{\pi} - <br /> <br /> \frac{1}{n}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{x}\sin (nx)\ dx\right\} = <br /> <br /> \frac{(-1)^{n+1}\left(e^{-\pi} - e^{\pi}\right)}{\pi(1+n^2)}<br />

<br /> b_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{x}\sin (nx)\ dx = \frac{1}{\pi}\left\{ <br /> <br /> \left[ -\frac{1}{n}\ e^{x}\cos (nx)\right]_{-\pi}^{\pi} + <br /> <br /> \frac{1}{n}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{x}\cos(nx)\ dx\right\} = <br /> <br /> \frac{n(-1)^{n}\left(e^{-\pi} - e^{\pi}\right)}{\pi(1+n^2)}<br />

So the Fourier series looks like this:

<br /> S(f,x) = \frac{\sinh \pi}{\pi}\ +\ \frac{2\sinh \pi}{\pi}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} <br /> <br /> \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{1+n^2}\left(\cos(nx) - n\sin(nx))<br />

Anyway, our professor gave us another right (I hope so) result:

<br /> S(f,x) = \frac{\sinh \pi}{\pi}\ +\ \frac{2\sinh \pi}{\pi}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} <br /> <br /> \frac{(-1)^{n}}{1+n^2}\left(\cos(nx) - n\sin(nx))<br />

Obviously my series is just of opposite sign than it should be, but I can't find
the mistake, could you help me please?
 
Last edited:
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twoflower,

Am I missing something? The two solutions look the same to me!
 
jdavel, twoflower's solution has (-1)^(n + 1) inside the sum, while the professor's solution has (-1)^n.
 
Last edited:
Muzza said:
jdavel, twoflower's solution has (-1)^(n + 1) inside the sum, while the professor's solution has (-1)^n.

Muzza,

Doh!
 
You must have made a mistake in the integrals. It's hard to tell because you've skipped 3 or 4 steps in your post, but it looks like at least your bottom integral is wrong (wrong sign) for the case where n is odd (the only case I felt like doing in my head).
 
as far as i can tell, when you have taken (e^-pi - e^pi) out from the summation you have left it as sinh(pi) whereas it should be -sinh(pi), this should then match with the professors solution.
I have a similar question, using this series i must show that \sum1/(1 + n^2) = 1/2(picoth(pi) -1), however when i calculate it to be 1/2(picoth(pi) + pi - 1), can anyone help?
 
Why is integration of e^x=2sinh (pie)/pie ?
i am not able to understand this concept can some body enlighten this for me !
 
Sinh(x)= 1/2 [e^x - e^(-x)]
 

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