mrroboto
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In class today, my teacher said,
"the definition for multiplicative inverses in the R (real numbers) does not give an inverse for
the real number [1/n] element of R."
What does this mean? It seems counterintuitive, and I can't figure out why it's true.
"the definition for multiplicative inverses in the R (real numbers) does not give an inverse for
the real number [1/n] element of R."
What does this mean? It seems counterintuitive, and I can't figure out why it's true.
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