What is the derivation of Maxwell's 4th equation for a static electric field?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the derivation of Maxwell's 4th equation for a static electric field, specifically relating to the curl of the magnetic field B. The curl of B is established as equal to the magnetic permeability (μ₀) times the current density (J), evaluated at a point outside the circuit (R₂). It is confirmed that the curl of B is zero everywhere except along the circuit itself, where the current flows. This derivation aligns with principles taught in Electromagnetism courses and utilizes the Biot-Savart law for calculations.

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  • Understanding of Maxwell's equations
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  • Knowledge of magnetic permeability (μ₀)
  • Concept of curl in vector calculus
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Master J
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In my derivation of Maxwell's 4th equation from the empirical Biot Savart law, for a static electric field, I have that the curl of B is equal to the magnetic permeability times the current density.

Now, the source coordinates (i. the circuit) are given by R_1 ( R is a vector). The field coordinates, that is, a point outside the circuit at which the field is measured, are given by R_2. As stated above, the curl of B is equal to the magnetic permeability times the current density, but this current density is evaluated at R_2.

This is of course zero. So this means that the curl of B is zero everywhere except on the circuit itself (in the wires). Am I correct? The derivation is the one I was thought in my Electromagnetism class, so I don't doubt it is correct.

Could someone perhaps expand on this for me. Am I correct?
 
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Master J said:
In my derivation of Maxwell's 4th equation from the empirical Biot Savart law, for a static electric field, I have that the curl of B is equal to the magnetic permeability times the current density.
You meant magnetic field?
Now, the source coordinates (i. the circuit) are given by R_1 ( R is a vector). The field coordinates, that is, a point outside the circuit at which the field is measured, are given by R_2. As stated above, the curl of B is equal to the magnetic permeability times the current density, but this current density is evaluated at R_2.

This is of course zero. So this means that the curl of B is zero everywhere except on the circuit itself (in the wires). Am I correct? The derivation is the one I was thought in my Electromagnetism class, so I don't doubt it is correct.

Could someone perhaps expand on this for me. Am I correct?

the current density is at the source:

\nabla \vec B = \mu_0 \vec J \hbox { better yet using integral form } \int_C \vec B \cdot d\vec S = \mu_0 I

Means the magnetic field is generated by the current I passing through a wire etc. The magnetic field is circulating around the current carrying wire. so even if you have a field point destinated by \vec R_2, all you do is to put into this formula

d\vec B_{(R_2)} \;=\; \frac {\mu_0 I}{4\pi}\;\; \frac {d\vec l X \vec R_2 }{R_2^3}

For any point ( as you called R_1) and the magnetic field from the complete wire is

\vec B_{(R_2)} \;=\; \frac {\mu_0 I}{4\pi}\;\; \int _C \frac {d\vec l X \vec R_2 }{R_2^3}

I don't use R_1 because the wire that carry current is always the source, you cannot take the magnetic field at R_1 and find the magnetic field in R_2.
 
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