What is the difference between groups SU(n) and SO(n,C)?

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The discussion clarifies the fundamental differences between the groups SU(n) and SO(n, ℂ). Unitary matrices in SU(n) satisfy the condition A · A̅ᵀ = 1, while orthogonal matrices in SO(n, ℂ) satisfy A · Aᵀ = 1, without complex conjugation. The participants debate the implications of these definitions, particularly regarding diagonalization and the existence of groups with complex entries. The conversation emphasizes that SO(n, ℂ) is indeed a valid group, distinct from SU(n), and highlights the necessity of understanding these differences in linear algebra and group theory.

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What is the difference between groups ##SU(n)## and ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##? They look completely the same.
 
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LagrangeEuler said:
What is the difference between groups ##SU(n)## and ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##? They look completely the same.
Unitary matrices satisfy ##A\cdot \bar A^\tau=1## whereas orthogonal matrices satisfy ##A\cdot A^\tau =1##. There is no complex conjugation in the definition of orthogonal groups.
 
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I disagree. If you have complex entries in some matrix then condition ##A \cdot A^T=1## is incorrect. Could you please give me a matrix with complex entries that are not just real and show that the condition ##A \cdot A^T=1## is fine? I do not think that this is possible. For instance
<br /> \begin{bmatrix}<br /> \cos \theta &amp; -\sin \theta\\<br /> \sin \theta &amp; \cos \theta<br /> \end{bmatrix}
if you diagonalise this matrix you will get
\begin{bmatrix}<br /> e^{i \theta} &amp; 0\\<br /> 0 &amp; e^{-i\theta}<br /> \end{bmatrix}
end then try to emply condition ##A \cdot A^T=1##. You will see that is not valid.
 
LagrangeEuler said:
I disagree.
Your personal opinion doesn't change the definition.
If you have complex entries in some matrix then condition ##A \cdot A^T=1## is incorrect.
A definition can't be incorrect, and as ##\mathbb{R}\subseteq\mathbb{C}## we get ##\operatorname{SO}(n,\mathbb{C}) \neq \{1\}.## Whether this is reasonable is a different question and the reason why we introduced unitary matrices in the complex case. However, some theorems in linear algebra require an algebraically closed field, so it makes sense to allow any field, not just the real numbers.

Have a look at https://www.amazon.com/s?k=Gantmacher+Matrix+theory&ref=nb_sb_noss and argue with Gantmacher whether this is "incorrect". Minor difficulty: he passed away in 1964.
 
LagrangeEuler said:
<br /> \begin{bmatrix}<br /> \cos \theta &amp; -\sin \theta\\<br /> \sin \theta &amp; \cos \theta<br /> \end{bmatrix}
if you diagonalise this matrix you will get
\begin{bmatrix}<br /> e^{i \theta} &amp; 0\\<br /> 0 &amp; e^{-i\theta}<br /> \end{bmatrix}
end then try to emply condition ##A \cdot A^T=1##. You will see that is not valid.

It seems like you have made a mistake in your diagonalization. The matrix you start with does satisfy ##A \cdot A^T=1##, and that property should be invariant under diagonalization, so the matrix you end with should satisfy it too.
 
PeterDonis said:
It seems like you have made a mistake in your diagonalization.
It looks fine to me.

PeterDonis said:
The matrix you start with does satisfy ##A \cdot A^T=1##, and that property should be invariant under diagonalization, so the matrix you end with should satisfy it too.
The property is not invariant under replacing a matrix with its complex diagonalization.

@LagrangeEuler Why is it a problem that the diagonalized form is no longer in ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##?
 
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Infrared said:
The property is not invariant under replacing a matrix with its complex diagonalization.

Ah, that's right; it's only invariant for a real diagonalization (which doesn't exist for the rotation matrix given since it has no real eigenvalues).
 
LagrangeEuler said:
I disagree. If you have complex entries in some matrix then condition ##A \cdot A^T=1## is incorrect.
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\left(
\begin{matrix}
2 & -i \\
i & 2
\end{matrix}\right)$$

At WolframAlpha
 
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mfb said:
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\left(
\begin{matrix}
2 & -i \\
i & 2
\end{matrix}\right)$$

At WolframAlpha
Yes. But you still need to have a group. Show me that group. An infinite group of matrices like this.
 
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fresh_42 said:
Your personal opinion doesn't change the definition.

A definition can't be incorrect, and as ##\mathbb{R}\subseteq\mathbb{C}## we get ##\operatorname{SO}(n,\mathbb{C}) \neq \{1\}.## Whether this is reasonable is a different question and the reason why we introduced unitary matrices in the complex case. However, some theorems in linear algebra require an algebraically closed field, so it makes sense to allow any field, not just the real numbers.

Have a look at https://www.amazon.com/s?k=Gantmacher+Matrix+theory&ref=nb_sb_noss and argue with Gantmacher whether this is "incorrect". Minor difficulty: he passed away in 1964.
Please see this text.
 

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  • #11
Infrared said:
It looks fine to me.The property is not invariant under replacing a matrix with its complex diagonalization.

@LagrangeEuler Why is it a problem that the diagonalized form is no longer in ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##?
Not a problem. I just ask why some people make a difference between ##SU(n)## and ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##? Could you please show me the two dimensional representation of group ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##?
 
  • #12
LagrangeEuler said:
Not a problem. I just ask why some people make a difference between ##SU(n)## and ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##?
Because they're different groups. The matrix @mfb gave is an element of ##SO(2,\mathbb{C})## but not of ##SU(2)##.

LagrangeEuler said:
Could you please show me the two dimensional representation of group ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##?
I don't know what you're asking for here. You've been given the definition and a non-real example. You can take ##\begin{pmatrix}z & -w\\ w & z\end{pmatrix}## where ##z^2+w^2=1## to get the whole group.
 
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  • #13
LagrangeEuler said:
Yes. But you still need to have a group. Show me that group. An infinite group of matrices like this.
##\operatorname{SO}(n,\mathbb{C})## is a group.
LagrangeEuler said:
Please see this text.
So? Myself has listed some isomorphisms here:
https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/journey-manifold-su2mathbbc-part/
That does not change the definition of ##\operatorname{SO}(n,\mathbb{K}).## Whether it is a meaningful definition or not depends on the application. Mathematics only requires contradiction-free.
LagrangeEuler said:
Not a problem. I just ask why some people make a difference between ##SU(n)## and ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##? Could you please show me the two dimensional representation of group ##SO(n,\mathbb{C})##?
##\varphi\, : \,\operatorname{SO}(2,\mathbb{C})\longrightarrow \operatorname{GL}(2,\mathbb{C})## with ##\varphi(A)(\mathbf{v}):=A\cdot \mathbf{v}.##

It is also needed for the complexification of the orthogonal group in Lie theory.

The fact that you do not like it means nothing. This question has been answered and the debate is becoming ridiculous.

Thread closed.
 
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