What is the general integral for this improper integral?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the general integral of an improper integral involving the function sin(x) over the interval from -π/2 to π/2. The original poster presents a partial solution and encounters difficulties due to the behavior of the tangent function at the endpoints.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the nature of the integral, questioning the evaluation of the tangent function at the endpoints and the implications of it being an improper integral. There is also mention of the odd function property of tangent and the potential for the integral to equal zero.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered insights regarding the evaluation of the integral and the nature of the antiderivative. There is recognition of the improper nature of the integral and the need to consider limits, with some exploring the concept of the Cauchy Principal Value.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the denominator becomes zero at the endpoints of the integral, raising questions about the proper evaluation of the integral and the definitions involved.

BlackMamba
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Hello,

I have a problem that I am having difficulties with. I'm told to find the general integral.

So here is the problem:
\int_{\frac {\pi} {2}}^{\frac {-\pi} {2}} \frac {sinx} {1 - sin^2 x} dx

Here is my partial solution:

\int_{\frac {\pi} {2}}^{\frac {-\pi} {2}} \frac {sinx} {cos^2 x} dx

\int_{\frac {\pi} {2}}^{\frac {-\pi} {2}} \frac {1} {cosx} * \frac {sinx} {cosx} dx

\int_{\frac {\pi} {2}}^{\frac {-\pi} {2}} secxtanx dx

= [tanx]

But here is where I am stuck, because when you evaluate tanx from \frac {\pi} {2} to \frac {-\pi} {2} you get an error because no value exists for tan \frac {\pi} {2}


Any help would be greatly appreciated. :smile:
 
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wouldn't it be zero? you're integrating from pi/2 to -pi/2 & tan is an odd function.
 
Well that is what I was unsure of. I just double checked the math on my calculator, and I realized I made an error inputting the values. So that would explain the error.

Thanks for the input. :smile:
 
The problem might be that you have the wrong antiderivative of sec(x)tan(x). What is the derivative of sec(x)?
 
OOPS i guess it has been a while since i last did calculus... sorry about that :eek: :redface:
 
d_leet said:
The problem might be that you have the wrong antiderivative of sec(x)tan(x). What is the derivative of sec(x)?

But surely sec (pi/2)=1/0 as well??
 
I'm a little puzzled by your saying you are asked to find the "general integral" and then asking for a specific value for a definite integral.

Of course, since the denominator, 1- sin2x is 0 at both \frac{pi}{2} and -\frac{\pi}{2}, this is an "improper integral". It's value is defined as
\lim_{\alpha\rightarrow -\frac{\pi}{2}} \lim_{\beta\rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}}\int_\beta^\alpha \frac{sin x}{1- sin^2 x}dx
So what you want to do is find the "general anti-derivative" and then take limits. Of course, that is precisely what you did- you can't evaluate tan(x) at the endpoints precisely because those limits do not exist.

The "Cauchy Principal Value" for this integral is defined as
\lim_{\alpha\rightarrow \frac{pi}{2}}\int_\alpha^{-\alpha}\frac{sin x}{1- sin^2x} dx
and since the integrand is odd, that is 0.
 
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