russ_watters
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Of course - if you define the slice to be constant, the slice stays constant! Wouldn't it be more useful to define "poor" based on standard of living than to arbitrarily select a certain fraction of the population and perpetually label them "poor" even though they drive better cars, have more appliances and live in better homes than the "poor" of 40 years ago?BoomBoom said:Depends on how you measure "poor"...the slice they get is as small as ever.
In any case, that's mostly irrelevant. We're not talking about poverty rate here. Even if we assume that 20% of the population is poor today and 20% of the population was poor 40 years ago, you can still measure their increase or decrease and when you do...you find out that as a group, they are getting richer.
Mostly by getting good educations and good jobs.So how do you think the rich get rich?
That's a pretty deep question. Ultimately, wealth is dug out of the ground and generated by man-hours of labor.Where do you think all their money originates from?
You are quite wrong. Whether in absolute terms or in percentage of income, the poor contribute nothing to our tax revenue.As a percentage of income, I'm quite sure the poor contribute much more to the rich than vice-versa.