What is the Maclaurin Series of Tanh(x)?

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SUMMARY

The Maclaurin Series of tanh(x) can be derived up to powers of x^5 using the derivatives f'(x) = sech²(x), f''(x) = -2sech²(x)tanh(x), and f'''(x) = 4sech²(x)tanh²(x) - 2sech⁴(x). The correct evaluation at f(0) = 0 and f'(0) = 1 is crucial, as confusion with coth(x) can lead to incorrect conclusions. Efficient methods for deriving the series include using long division of sinh(x) and cosh(x) or employing advanced algorithms like Newton-Raphson division to quickly obtain coefficients.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Maclaurin Series and Taylor Series expansions
  • Familiarity with hyperbolic functions, specifically tanh(x), sinh(x), and cosh(x)
  • Knowledge of derivatives and their applications in series expansion
  • Basic proficiency in algorithmic methods for series division, such as Newton-Raphson
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Maclaurin Series for sinh(x) and cosh(x)
  • Learn about Newton-Raphson division and its applications in series expansions
  • Explore the differences between hyperbolic functions and their trigonometric counterparts
  • Practice deriving series expansions for other functions using long division techniques
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students studying calculus, and anyone interested in advanced series expansions and hyperbolic functions.

thomas49th
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Let's find the Maclaurin Series of tanhx up to powers of x^5

Yeah! Good idea!

I know

Right, f(x) = tanh
f'(x) = sech^{2}(x)
f''(x) = -2sech^{2}(x)tanh(x)
f''(x) = 4sech^{2}(x)tanh^{2}(x) - 2sech^{4}(x)

giving f(0) = 0, f'(0) = 1, f''(0) = 0 f'''(-2)

but according to my textbook apparently f'(0) = -1, how can this be. Especially as f'''(0) = -2, not just 2.

Thanks
Thomas
 
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Hi Thomas! :smile:

Looks like they're doing cothx instead of tanhx :confused:
 
Yes, something is wrong here...

Another thing is that the Taylor formula is not the most efficient way to derive such series expansions. You can speed things up by dividing the series expansions of sinh(x) and cosh(x). To do that, you can use long division, or similarly, you can equate the fraction to an undetermined series a1 x + a3 x^3 + a5 x^5 + ... (as we know that tanh(x) is an aodd function) and then multiply both sides by the series for cosh(x) and then solve for a1, a3, etc by equating the coefficients of equal powers of x on both sides.

A third way is to use a more advanced algorithm for division, like e.g. Newton-Raphson division. Such algorithms will double the number of correct coefficients at each step, so you can obtain the first million terms in just 20 steps.
 
tiny-tim said:
Hi Thomas! :smile:

Looks like they're doing cothx instead of tanhx :confused:

Not if the series is about x = 0!

OP: Are you sure the book claims f'(0) = -1? The first term in the series for tanh(x) is indeed x.
 
Mute said:
Not if the series is about x = 0!

oops! :rolleyes: :redface:
 

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