Ivan Antunovic
- 109
- 4
I have one more question , suppose we weren't using derivatives to find our angle θ for maximum emf induced, because it takes too much time ,
when θ = 0 and since cosθ , the magnetic flux will be maximum , emf induced is derivative of magnetic flux so it is connected with sinθ and sinθ is maximum for π/2.
I think that Force should be in the direction as shown on the picture
image sharing
by definition
F = q(v x B), and e = integral ( (vxB) * dA) )
I can't find cross product of v x B with right hand rule since they are not making angle of 90 degrees,
and I should use matrix calculations to find it but that again involves a lot of math ,
but both F and dA should make angle of 0 degrees to get our maximum emf induced,
so that we get cos(0) = 1 , and therefore e = F*A *cos(0) = F*A , where we get our maximum induced emf.
Is my thinking legit?
when θ = 0 and since cosθ , the magnetic flux will be maximum , emf induced is derivative of magnetic flux so it is connected with sinθ and sinθ is maximum for π/2.
I think that Force should be in the direction as shown on the picture
image sharing
by definition
F = q(v x B), and e = integral ( (vxB) * dA) )
I can't find cross product of v x B with right hand rule since they are not making angle of 90 degrees,
and I should use matrix calculations to find it but that again involves a lot of math ,
but both F and dA should make angle of 0 degrees to get our maximum emf induced,
so that we get cos(0) = 1 , and therefore e = F*A *cos(0) = F*A , where we get our maximum induced emf.
Is my thinking legit?
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