mbrmbrg said:
Basic wave function: [tex]y(x,t)=y_m\sin{(kx-\omega t)}[/tex]
- y(x,t) will be the area perpindicular to the magnetic field at a given time
- y_m=amplitude=actual area of the loop=A
- [tex]kx-\omega t[/tex] is the angle that the loop makes with the magnetic field... I think...
I feel like an idiot
I've also been doing nothing but physics for a couple of days, please excuse me.
:the sort of emoticon that looks all normal then spontaneously explodes, sending tiny bits of itself all over the screen, but it explodes in a sphere, of course, because space is isotropic:
I know the feeling, I've just done a QM exam today . But don't despair, your very close. Perhaps my hint of the wave function was a little unfair. Since you've already posted your homework I don't mind showing you this derivation. Okay, so you know Gauss' law;
[tex]\Phi_B = \int \vec{B}\cdot d\vec{A}[/tex]
Now, recall the definition of the dot product, namely [itex]\vec{A}\cdot\vec{B} = |A||B|\cos\theta[/itex] thus for a coil of area A and N loops we can write;
[tex]\Phi_B = \int \vec{B}\cdot d\vec{A} = BAN\cos\theta[/tex]
Now, from Faraday's law;
[tex]\xi = -\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt} = -\frac{d}{dt}\left( BAN\cos\theta \right)[/tex]
Recall that [itex]\omega = \theta/t \Rightarrow \theta = \omega t[/itex]; hence,
[tex]\xi = -\frac{d}{dt}\left( BAN\cos\omega t \right)[/tex]
[tex]\xi = BAN\omega\sin\omega t[/tex]
Since [itex]\omega = 2\pi f[/itex] we arrive at our desired result;
[tex]\xi = 2BAN\pi f\sin(2\pi f t)[/tex]
I hope this helps. Don't be to hard on yourself, if you've been doing nothing but physics lately, your probably very tired and very bored of physics. Try forgetting about physics for a few hours and doing something different, you'll probably find you'll come back refreshed
