What is the proof for the isomorphism between the open interval (0, 1) and ℝ?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the isomorphism between the open interval (0, 1) and the real numbers ℝ, focusing on the properties of completeness in metric spaces and the implications of homeomorphisms. Participants explore theoretical aspects, including definitions and examples related to completeness, metrics, and topological properties.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants assert that the open interval (0, 1) is isomorphic to ℝ, but question the implications of completeness, noting that ℝ is complete while (0, 1) is not due to the lack of limit points for certain sequences.
  • Others clarify that completeness is a metric property and not preserved by homeomorphisms, providing examples such as the homeomorphism between (0, ∞) under different metrics.
  • There is a discussion about the dependence of completeness on the chosen metric, with some arguing it is independent of the metric space while others contend it is crucially dependent on the metric.
  • A participant mentions a result regarding Gδ subsets of complete metric spaces being topologically complete, offering to share a proof and metric construction later.
  • Another participant expresses interest in the proof and the conditions under which the result holds, indicating a need for further clarification on the argument.
  • A sketch of a proof is provided, referencing properties of topologically complete spaces and the construction of a metric, although it remains incomplete and unclear.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants exhibit disagreement regarding the relationship between completeness and metric spaces, with some asserting independence and others emphasizing dependence. The discussion remains unresolved on several points, particularly concerning the nature of isomorphism and completeness.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the unclear definitions of terms like "topologically complete" and the incomplete nature of the proof sketches provided. The discussion also highlights the need for further exploration of the implications of homeomorphisms on completeness.

Bachelier
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The open interval (0, 1) is isomorphic to ℝ. One can find many bijections, yet ℝ is complete but (0, 1) is not (because the Cauchy seq. 1/n has no limit point in (0, 1)?

what am I missing? isomorphism means groups are and behave similarly?
 
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Completeness is a metric property, not a topological property, so it is not necessarily preserved by homeomorphisms.

Another example: ##(0,\infty)## with the usual metric is homeomorphic to ##(0,\infty)## with the metric ##d(x,y) = |\log(x) - \log(y)|##, but the latter space is complete whereas the former is not. This is because with the log metric, it's not possible to get close to the missing point 0: no matter how small we choose ##x \in (0, \infty)##, we have ##d(x, x/2) = \log(2)##.
 
jbunniii said:
Completeness is a metric property, not a topological property, so it is not necessarily preserved by homeomorphisms.

Another example: ##(0,\infty)## with the usual metric is homeomorphic to ##(0,\infty)## with the metric ##d(x,y) = |\log(x) - \log(y)|##, but the latter space is complete whereas the former is not. This is because with the log metric, it's not possible to get close to the missing point 0: no matter how small we choose ##x \in (0, \infty)##, we have ##d(x, x/2) = \log(2)##.

Interesting. The more I learn the more I find out I know nothing.
 
So I guess completeness depends on the metric and is independent of the metric space we choose.
 
Bachelier said:
So I guess completeness depends on the metric and is independent of the metric space we choose.

It is dependent of the metric space we choose! Completeness depends indeed crucially on the metric. It is not a topological concept since we can not define what complete is by using only open sets. This is the reason that it is not preserved by homeomorphisms. You need some metric space (or a bit more general: a uniform or approach space) to make sense of completeness.

A related concept is that of "completely metrizable". A topological space is completely metrizable if there exists some metric on the space that makes it complete. Of course, that doesn't mean that every metric makes it complete. This notion of "completely metrizable" is preserved under homeomorphisms. So both [itex](0,1)[/itex] as [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex] are completely metrizable, even though [itex](0,1)[/itex] is not complete under the usual metric.

Other notions which need a metric are Cauchy sequence, totally bounded, uniform continuity. None of these can be expressed properly in topological context. They are thus not preserved under homeomorphisms.
 
There is an obscure result that every Gδ subset of a complete metric space is topologically complete, and the proof is constructive, i.e., the actual metric is constructed in the proof. As an example, the irrationals are subset of the reals that are topologically complete. Sorry don't have much time now, do you want to know the actual argument and metric?
 
Bacle2 said:
There is an obscure result that every Gδ subset of a complete metric space is topologically complete, and the proof is constructive, i.e., the actual metric is constructed in the proof. As an example, the irrationals are subset of the reals that are topologically complete. Sorry don't have much time now, do you want to know the actual argument and metric?

By all means...Thank you.
 
Glad to help. I'll do the proof when I have more time. Still, I need to think thru to see if this is an iff. result.
 
Here is the proof:

You use these facts: an open or closed subset of topologically-complete spaces, the countable product of
topologically-complete spaces are all topologically-complete. You also use the fact that the diagonal in a Hausdorff
space is closed ( we work with the diagonal in a product space). Let your Gδ set D be given as D= O1\capO2...

And use the embedding d--> (d,d,d...) of D into O1xO2x...

Then D is a closed subset of the Hausdorff space ( the product of the Oi's) , which is itself a
Gδ , as a countable product of Gδ's .

Let me work a bit more on the proof that gives you the actual metric.

This is just a sketch from my notes, which were not too clear.
 
Last edited:

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