What is the relationship between black holes and time dilation?

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The relationship between black holes and time dilation is complex, with distant observers never witnessing objects crossing a black hole's event horizon due to extreme time dilation effects. While matter appears to accumulate near the event horizon, it never seems to be observed crossing it, leading to the misconception of a "frozen star." The formation of jets from black holes is theorized to be linked to the dynamics of accretion disks, where material is ejected along the rotational axis due to pressure and magnetic fields. Additionally, orbital precession occurs around black holes, influenced by gravitational effects but not exclusively by frame dragging. Overall, the study of black holes continues to challenge and expand our understanding of general relativity and astrophysics.
  • #31
Birkhoff's Theorem

I remarked "In the interior region, not surprisingly, the spacetime is no longer stationary", which prompted this query:

quantum123 said:
Is this a contradiction to Birkoff's theorem? (it says spherical symmetric fields must be stationary)

Not quite. Birkhoff's theorem is in essence a unicity result. One way to state the theorem would be along these lines: "any spherically symmetric local vacuum solution of the EFE must be locally isometric to one of the one-parameter family of Schwarzschild vacuum solutions". (I'd hate to be forced to define exactly what I mean by "spherically symmetric local solution", though.)

Stephani states the theorem like this: "every spherically symmetric vacuum solution is independent of t", but immediately adds that some caveats which directly address your question: in the interior region "t is not a timelike coordinate and r is not a spacelike coordinate...However the theorem still holds, although one would no longer describe the solution as static" in the interior region.

Other authors offer other statements and other proofs (in physicist's sense). One approach is to argue from spherical symmetry to the existence of a killing vector which behaves like our \partial_t, i.e. timelike in an asymptocally flat exterior region, spacelike in an interior region, and null on the locus (horizon) seperating these regions. In short, there is no contradiction with the interior region not being stationary.
 
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  • #32
Chris Hillman said:
Are you sure that you are not thinking of certain hypothetical (and possibly dubious) scenarios which go by the name "time machines" in the literature?
By literature, do you include popular physics books such as Brian Greene's? (Not that this was in that one, but those are the kinds of book I read.)[/QUOTE]


You can't "make a right turn" to turn a spacelike vector into a timelike one, even in flat spacetime. Perhaps better put: you cannot "swing" a spacelike vector into a timelike vector by using any Lorentz transformation. Can you recall exactly what you read and where? What you wrote cannot be quite right. "Make a right hand turn" sounds awfully suspicious for the reason I gave, and "if you then leave the black hole" obviously requires explanation!

What I recall is this:

First, you need to build a black hole in the shape of a torus (granted, this is the fabulously advanced technology part).
If the BH is massive enough you can take advantage of the space-bending effect without crossing the event horizon.
In the right place, the time axis is bent 90 degrees (this happens regardless of whether your ship is there), thus, your ship is able to travel in a direction that, once it exits the BH, it will have traveled in time, rather than in space.

I grant this is horribly hypothetical. It's not like it's at all practically possible, but it suggests that the universe does not rule out time travel.

I also grant that my understanding is highly simplistic and popularized. I am open to enlightenment (though post-high school math is beyond me).
 
  • #33
DaveC426913 said:
By literature, do you include popular physics books such as Brian Greene's? (Not that this was in that one, but those are the kinds of book I read.)

What I recall is this:

First, you need to build a black hole in the shape of a torus (granted, this is the fabulously advanced technology part).
If the BH is massive enough you can take advantage of the space-bending effect without crossing the event horizon.
In the right place, the time axis is bent 90 degrees (this happens regardless of whether your ship is there), thus, your ship is able to travel in a direction that, once it exits the BH, it will have traveled in time, rather than in space.

I grant this is horribly hypothetical. It's not like it's at all practically possible, but it suggests that the universe does not rule out time travel.

I also grant that my understanding is highly simplistic and popularized. I am open to enlightenment (though post-high school math is beyond me).

Offhand, I'd guess that your "black hole in the shape of a torus" is a spinning black hole, i.e. a Kerr black hole, which is often described in the popular literature and a rather bad Wikipeida article as a "ring singularity", though I don't think I've ever seen that description in a textbook.

There are other possibilities - an infinite rotating cylinder gives rise to a time machine, the Tippler time machine. At one time it was thought that a finite but long rotating cylinder would also form a time machine, but I believe that this is no longer felt to be the case.

You'll basically have to find your source before we can comment. For what it's worth, I have a vague recollection of reading something like you describe, a very long time ago before I knew much about GR, but I don't recall where.
 
  • #34
I’m afraid I continue to be perplexed about the way time dilation works inside the event horizon, particularly for the case of a collapsing star. What I am interested in is a sequence of light rays which had originated from flat space, and are striking the surface of the star. Pervect, you write:
“http://web.mit.edu/8.962/www/probset/pset11.pdf, a homework set, solves this.
The answer is that the dust cloud will collapse to a singularity in a proper time (as measured by a clock anywhere in the dust-cloud) of (pi/2)*R_0 /c (assuming a_max = 1 as advised in the problem set).”

However, I am worried not about the proper time for the surface of the collapsing star (or anywhere in the star). I don’t doubt that that is finite. I am worried about the proper time for the source of signals in flat space “while” the collapse is happening in the sense that signals from flat space strike the star during the collapse.

Before the collapse, and before the creation of the event horizon, the rays are blue shifted. By the proper time of the source, they are leaving at one per second, while, just before the collapse of the star, they are arriving at the surface at many more than one per second. As the star begins to collapse, but before the event horizon breaks the surface of the star, the blue shifting will increase. Even more signals will strike the surface per second of proper time at the surface of the collapsing star. Naively, this rate appears to be going to infinity before the star collapses to zero radius. When the event horizon passes the surface of the star, perhaps something different will happen? As the light cone turns over, so that in the usual space time diagrams, the “right hand” part of the cone is now pointing to the star side of vertical. I take it this is the point where space and time “switch roles”. Does this have the effect of changing the behavior of the time dilation so that the increase of rate of signals striking the surface changes, and the time between strikes doesn’t approach zero? In the Eddington-Finklestein diagram at http://casa.colorado.edu/~ajsh/schwp.html, the ochre lines coming in at 45 degrees are a sequence of null surfaces originating from flat space which are striking the surface of the collapsing star at earlier times, and are striking the singularity at later times. If we draw those lines as one per second, I take it that as the star begins to collapse, the ochre lines get closer together as they go up the diagram. From the responses on this thread, I take it that the distance between the lines doesn’t go to zero as the radius of the collapsing star goes to zero. I would like to understand why the distances don’t go to zero before the star collapses to singularity. I will be getting a copy of MTW’s “Gravitation” soon, but it’s an open question whether I will be able to understand it.
 
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  • #35
dpyikes said:
I am worried about the proper time for the source of signals in flat space “while” the collapse is happening in the sense that signals from flat space strike the star during the collapse.
Well, the proper time interval between the source and the surface of the collapsing star for "the source of signals" is exactly zero.

Perhaps the confusion is related to the term "shift". Nothing is shifted in the light between the source and the surface of the collapsing star.

Light, by itself, does not undergo any changes going from one gravitational potential to another. The observed "blue" shift is solely due to the difference in "clock" speeds between the emitter and absorber.

In other words, the absorbing atom observes a gravitational redshift if the emitting atom was "redder" and a gravitational blueshift if the emitting atom was "bluer".

Think of this analogy: if someone comes out of the freezing cold and takes a cold shower it does not feel cold at all, but for someone who sat in front of the fireplace it feels very cold. :smile:
 
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  • #36
MeJennifer –

You write:

“the absorbing atom observes gravitational redshift if emitting atom was "redder" and gravitational blueshift if the emitting atom was "bluer".”

In the relevant case, the absorbing atom is on the surface of the collapsing star, the emitting atom is at some point in flat space -- there is a gravitational blueshift at work in the sense both that if those light rays had been received in flat space, they would have been at a lower wavelength than those received at the surface, and that the number received per second by the proper time of a receiver in flat space would have been less than those received by the proper time of the surface of the collapsing star. When talking about the proper time for the surface of the star, I was not talking about the proper time of the light signal. I was talking about the proper time for the surface, say, between signal strikes. I am trying to understand why that proper time is not approaching zero as the radius of the star moves toward zero.
 
  • #37
dpyikes said:
I was talking about the proper time for the surface, say, between signal strikes. I am trying to understand why that proper time is not approaching zero as the radius of the star moves toward zero.
Let's see if I understand this properly:

An object, at a far distance from a black hole, sends every second a pulse in the direction of a collapsing star.
This pulse is received by an observer who is on the surface of this collapsing star. The star is soon to become a black hole.

Why does the proper time interval between consecutive pulses received by the observer on the surface not approach zero during the formation of the event horizon?

Did I formulate your question correctly?
 
  • #38
Yes, MeJennifer -- It seems to me that the proper time between signals received ought to approach zero, unless there is something about time and space switching roles inside the event horizon that prevents this.
 
  • #39
dpyikes said:
However, I am worried not about the proper time for the surface of the collapsing star (or anywhere in the star). I don’t doubt that that is finite. I am worried about the proper time for the source of signals in flat space “while” the collapse is happening in the sense that signals from flat space strike the star during the collapse.

This is an interesting question, and I hope that sometime in the next few days I can find the time to do the calculation.
 
  • #40
dpyikes said:
I’m afraid I continue to be perplexed about the way time dilation works inside the event horizon, particularly for the case of a collapsing star. What I am interested in is a sequence of light rays which had originated from flat space, and are striking the surface of the star. Pervect, you write:
“http://web.mit.edu/8.962/www/probset/pset11.pdf, a homework set, solves this.
The answer is that the dust cloud will collapse to a singularity in a proper time (as measured by a clock anywhere in the dust-cloud) of (pi/2)*R_0 /c (assuming a_max = 1 as advised in the problem set).”

However, I am worried not about the proper time for the surface of the collapsing star (or anywhere in the star). I don’t doubt that that is finite. I am worried about the proper time for the source of signals in flat space “while” the collapse is happening in the sense that signals from flat space strike the star during the collapse.

Before the collapse, and before the creation of the event horizon, the rays are blue shifted. By the proper time of the source, they are leaving at one per second, while, just before the collapse of the star, they are arriving at the surface at many more than one per second. As the star begins to collapse, but before the event horizon breaks the surface of the star, the blue shifting will increase. Even more signals will strike the surface per second of proper time at the surface of the collapsing star. Naively, this rate appears to be going to infinity before the star collapses to zero radius. When the event horizon passes the surface of the star, perhaps something different will happen? As the light cone turns over, so that in the usual space time diagrams, the “right hand” part of the cone is now pointing to the star side of vertical. I take it this is the point where space and time “switch roles”. Does this have the effect of changing the behavior of the time dilation so that the increase of rate of signals striking the surface changes, and the time between strikes doesn’t approach zero? In the Eddington-Finklestein diagram at http://casa.colorado.edu/~ajsh/schwp.html, the ochre lines coming in at 45 degrees are a sequence of null surfaces originating from flat space which are striking the surface of the collapsing star at earlier times, and are striking the singularity at later times. If we draw those lines as one per second, I take it that as the star begins to collapse, the ochre lines get closer together as they go up the diagram. From the responses on this thread, I take it that the distance between the lines doesn’t go to zero as the radius of the collapsing star goes to zero. I would like to understand why the distances don’t go to zero before the star collapses to singularity. I will be getting a copy of MTW’s “Gravitation” soon, but it’s an open question whether I will be able to understand it.

I believe I mentioned the relevant points for this part of the question earlier. This time around I'll ask some questions rather than give any more answers.

1) If you are standing still, and your friend is passing you by at a significant percent of light speed, do you both agree on the frequency of a light beam, or is there some relative red/blue shift due to the difference in your velocities when you both measure the frequency of the same light beam?

2) If a hovering observer "hovers" at a stationary r coordinate, what is the rerlative velocity between that hovering observer and an free-falling observer, in the limit as the hovering observer approaches the event horizon?

3) Does this relative velocity contribute to the observed red/blue shift, as per question 1?
 
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  • #41
Pervect -- I think I liked it better when you were answering the questions.

”1) If you are standing still, and your friend is passing you by at a significant percent of light speed, do you both agree on the frequency of a light beam, or is there some relative red/blue shift due to the difference in your velocities when you both measure the frequency of the same light beam?”

Assuming this takes place in flat space and each are sending signals to the other, there would be a red shifting of signals in both reference frames – The situation is symmetric: If both people sent and received a sequence of signals, both would receive the light at lower frequencies (and receive signals at lower rates) than would be received by people moving along with the two people respectively.

”2) If a hovering observer "hovers" at a stationary r coordinate, what is the relative velocity between that hovering observer and an free-falling observer, in the limit as the hovering observer approaches the event horizon?”

As I understand the question, the hoverer is hovering very close to the event horizon and the free faller is falling from infinity, and the question is what is his velocity relative to the hoverer just before the free faller passes the event horizon. I don’t know the answer – in fact, I wouldn’t have thought there is one single answer. The relative speed would be greatest if the free faller were falling radially. Anyway, I don’t know.

”3) Does this relative velocity contribute to the observed red/blue shift, as per question 1?”

Assuming the speed of the free faller is a significant percentage of the speed of light, there would be symmetric special relativistic red shifting of signals sent and received between the two observers, just as in case 1. If they are both just outside the event horizon, then there is no difference in gravitational potential between them, so I think there would be no gravitational time dilation between them.

Signals from a third point in flat space would have a blue shifted component to both of them because of gravitational time dilation. If the free faller is moving at some significant portion of the speed of light, this would red shift the signals from flat space, tending to cancel blue shifting to him.

I’m sorry I could not find the answer to my question in your previous posts. I take it the answer is that there is a finite number of signal strikes originating from flat space before the collapsing star reaches singularity?
 
  • #42
Chris Hillman said:
johatfie wrote: "since such a ship will be experiencing ever increasing time dilation from the effects of both special and general relativity as it accelerates toward the event horizon."

Chris replied:
No, in fact this "explanation" runs completely counter to the spirit as well as the letter of the law as laid down by gtr, if I might so put it.

Chris, just to clear/educate my own mind, would it have been more correct if johatfie stated: "since such a ship will be experiencing ever increasing velocity time dilation and gravitational time dilation as it accelerates (or falls) toward the event horizon?"

I am asking this because in Schwarzschild coordinates, the ratio: proper-time to coordinate time can be expressed as the product of a gravitational time dilation factor and a velocity time dilation factor, e.g.,

dtau^2/dt^2 = -g_00 (1-v^2),

where g_00 is the time-time coefficient of the metric and v is the velocity in the local (infinitesimal) Lorentz frame.

Regards, Jorrie
 
  • #43
Wild speculation, confusion due to misread popular books, etc.

DaveC426913 said:
By literature, do you include popular physics books such as Brian Greene's? (Not that this was in that one, but those are the kinds of book I read.)

No, I meant "research literature". I tend to assume that anyone who comes by here has some familiarity with the popular literature, and has been thoroughy confused by it.

Brian Greene's field of research uses gtr, but is not gtr. Among the popular books dealing with classical gravitation, I feel that the books by Geroch and by Wald are outstanding; see http://www.math.ucr.edu/home/baez/RelWWW/reading.html#pop

DaveC426913 said:
First, you need to build a black hole in the shape of a torus (granted, this is the fabulously advanced technology part).
If the BH is massive enough you can take advantage of the space-bending effect without crossing the event horizon.
In the right place, the time axis is bent 90 degrees (this happens regardless of whether your ship is there), thus, your ship is able to travel in a direction that, once it exits the BH, it will have traveled in time, rather than in space.

I grant this is horribly hypothetical. It's not like it's at all practically possible, but it suggests that the universe does not rule out time travel.

I also grant that my understanding is highly simplistic and popularized. I am open to enlightenment (though post-high school math is beyond me).

OK, Dave, I still don't know what you read or where (or are you saying you think you read the above in a book by Brian Greene?--- if so, I am confident that you have omitted essential context and also misread or misrecall whatever BG might have written), but "In the right place, the time axis is bent 90 degrees (this happens regardless of whether your ship is there), thus, your ship is able to travel in a direction that, once it exits the BH, it will have traveled in time, rather than in space" is wrong, if indeed it even rises to that level. (I recall the caustic phrase of Pauli, author of the first relativity textbook, that some claims are "not even wrong".)

I think it is best to say that there are some more or less wild speculations in the research literature about possible time travel (including speculation involving Lorentzian wormholes), but it is probably fair to say that most physicists currently think this is ruled out in Nature. Certainly the mainstream view is that it seems unlikely that humans can engage in time travel (into their absolute past).
 
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  • #44
Two quick comments

Hi, dpyikes and everyone else confused by this thread,

dpyikes said:
It seems to me that the proper time between signals received ought to approach zero, unless there is something about time and space switching roles inside the event horizon that prevents this.

Two quick comments:

1. "time dilation" is always relative: it concerns signals emitted by one observer and received by another; thus, this phrase has no meaning unless you specify which observers are involved; in addition, time dilation effects occur because of geodesic deviation of null geodesics; it is nonsensical to speak of "time slowing down" (no wonder you guys are confused!--- please, stop reading those awful popular books which use such terribly misleading language, and start reading the two popular books I recommended)

2. is is nonsensical to claim that "time and space switch roles" anywhere in any Lorentzian manifold (no wonder you guys are confused!--- please, stop reading those awful popular books which use such terribly misleading language, and start reading the two popular books I recommended).

In short: no wonder you guys are confused!--- please, stop reading those awful popular books which use such terribly misleading language, and start reading the two popular books I recommended in http://www.math.ucr.edu/home/baez/RelWWW/reading.html#pop .
 
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  • #45
Chris Hillman said:
1. "time dilation" is always relative: it concerns signals emitted by one observer and received by another; thus, this phrase has no meaning unless you specify which observers are involved
Christ, I attempted to formulate dpyikes question to avoid such uncertainties. Please take a look at it in my prior posting so you can see exactly what he is asking.
Hope this helps! :smile:
 
  • #46
Arghghgh!

Hi, Jorrie,

Jorrie said:
Chris, just to clear/educate my own mind, would it have been more correct if johatfie stated: "since such a ship will be experiencing ever increasing velocity time dilation and gravitational time dilation as it accelerates (or falls) toward the event horizon?"

To repeat: "time dilation" (and "red/blue shift") concerns signals emitted by one observer and received by another; it has no meaning unless you specify an ordered pair of observers.

Jorrie said:
I am asking this because in Schwarzschild coordinates, the ratio: proper-time to coordinate time can be expressed as the product of a gravitational time dilation factor and a velocity time dilation factor, e.g.,

dtau^2/dt^2 = -g_00 (1-v^2),

where g_00 is the time-time coefficient of the metric and v is the velocity in the local (infinitesimal) Lorentz frame.

"Proper time" has no meaning unless you specify which observer you are talking about.

I know which observers you are asking about here, but instead of answering your question, I'll let you try to reformulate it properly (no pun intended).
 
  • #47
Tipler

pervect said:
There are other possibilities - an infinite rotating cylinder gives rise to a time machine, the Tippler time machine.

Tipler's (one p) model results from modeling the exterior field of a rotating cylindrical shell, or something like that. See also the Van Stockum dust and consider matching to a vacuum region (possible because the dust is a pressureless perfect fluid). Tipler has written some interesting papers (early in his career), e.g. on classification of curvature singularities, but has become quite eccentric in some of his popular writings, as you probably know...

Various regions in a pair of coaxial rotating cylindrical shells has been discussed in connection with supposed "Machian" (or "anti-Machian") phenomena in gtr (compare Lense-Thirring for a rotating spherical shell).
 
  • #48
Computing a frequency shift

dpyikes said:
I’m afraid I continue to be perplexed about the way time dilation works inside the event horizon, particularly for the case of a collapsing star.

So-called "time dilation" concerns lightlike signals sent from one observer to another observer. This notion has no meaning unless you specify an ordered pair of observers. In the above, I guess you mean an observer on the surface of a collapsing spherical dust ball (in an Oppenheimer-Snyder model) sending time signals once per second by his ideal clock to a very distant static observer.

dpyikes said:
What I am interested in is a sequence of light rays which had originated from flat space, and are striking the surface of the star.

OK, now I guess that you mean a distant static observer sending signals once per second (by his clock) to an observer on the surface of a collapsing spherical dust ball in an OS model (not the same thing at all!).

Everyone, please, make the effort to try to specify which pair of observers you are talking about, or endless confusion will result! I'd also once again highly recommend the two popular books which I keep recommending (see link given in my immediately preceding posts in this thread above).

dpyikes said:
I am worried about the proper time for the source of signals in flat space “while” the collapse is happening in the sense that signals from flat space strike the star during the collapse.

There is no flat spacetime here. I doubt you were referring to the flat spatial hyperslices in the Painleve chart; rather, I guess that you were referring to
the fact that the exterior region is asymptotically flat, so that very far away from the collapsing dust ball, our OS spacetime is approximately Minkowskian.

I don't understand what you are worried about, but I can help you compute the frequency shift in this scenario (assuming I understand what you have in mind).

To construct the OS model, we match a region filled with collapsing dust (modeled using a portion of an FRW dust model with E^3 hyperslices orthogonal to the world lines of the dust) across a collapsing sphere to an asymptotically flat vacuum exterior region (modeled using a portion of the Schwarzschild vacuum solution). A key observation is that since a dust is a pressureless perfect fluid, there are no forces acting on the dust particles, so their world lines will be timelike geodesics. In particular, the world lines of observers on the surface will be timelike geodesics.

Now, as you would expect, our dust ball must be momentarily at rest at some r=r_0, where r is the Schwarzschild radial coordinate of the surface in the exterior region. To keep things as simple as possible, we should take the limit where r_0 \rightarrow \infty, and then observers riding on the surface of the collapsing dust ball will be "Lemaitre observers" (the ones involved in the Painleve chart, called "free-fall chart" by Andrew Hamilton; see the figure just above the one you mentioned). If we took a finite dust ball, we would use "Novikov observers".

Let me outline how Hamilton came up with the picture he labels "free-fall spacetime diagram".

In the Painleve chart (1921), the metric tensor can be written
ds^2 = -dT^2 + \left( dr + \sqrt{m/r} \, dT \right)^2 + r^2 \, \left( d\theta^2 + \sin(\theta)^2 \, d\phi^2 \right)
= -(1-2m/r) \, dT^2 + 2 \, \sqrt{2m/r} \, dT \, dr + dr^2 + r^2 \, \left( d\theta^2 + \sin(\theta)^2 \, d\phi^2 \right),
-\infty < T < \infty, \; 0 < r < \infty, \; 0 < \theta < \pi, \; -\pi < \phi < \pi
The world lines of the Lemaitre observers are the integral curves of
\vec{e}_0 = \partial_T - \sqrt{2m/r}\, \partial_r
That is:
T - T_0 = \sqrt{\frac{2 \, (r-r_0)^3}{9m}}
The world lines of radially ingoing light rays are the integral curves of
\vec{k} = \partial_T - \left( 1 + \sqrt{2m/r} \right) \, \partial_r
That is:
T - T_0 = -\left( r-r_0 \right) + \sqrt{8 m} \, \left( r-r_0 \right) - 4 m \, \log \frac{\sqrt{r}+\sqrt{2m}}{\sqrt{r_0}+\sqrt{2m}}
So now you can draw a bunch of light signals sent from a very distant static observer (once per second, by his ideal clock) to an observer standing on the surface of the collapsing dust ball. You should get the same picture as Hamilton (see "Freely fall spacetime diagram", where the bright yellow curves depict the world lines of some radially infalling null geodesics, and where the light green curves depict the world lines of some Lemaitre observers.)

We can augment the timelike unit vector field \vec{e}_0 with three spacelike unit vector fields, all mutually orthogonal, in order to obtain the frame field we would use to describe the physical experience of our Lemaitre observers:
\vec{e}_1 = \partial_r, \; \vec{e}_2 = \frac{1}{r} \, \partial_{\theta}, \; \vec{e}_3 = \frac{1}{r \, \sin(\theta)} \, \partial_{\phi}
Then \vec{e}_0, \; \vec{e}_1, \; \vec{e}_2, \; \vec{e}_3 is an example of an inertial nonspinning frame field, which is as close as we can come in a curved spacetime to a "local Lorentz frame". As I said, the timelike congruence defining the Lemaitre observers is obtained from \vec{e}_0; note that the null congruence of radially ingoing null geodesics is \vec{k} = \vec{e}_0 - \vec{e}_1. Do you see why we can see at a glance that this is a null vector field, indeed a "radial" null vector field? Can you guess what would be the null vector field defining the null congruence of radially outgoing null geodesics?

I stress that the Painleve chart is defined down to the curvature singularity at r=0 and has two delightful properties:

1. the hyperslices T=T_0 are locally isometric to E^3, with a polar spherical chart in which the radial coordinate is just the Schwarzschild radial coordinate,

2. the difference of Painleve time coordinate T_2-T_1 for two events on the world line of one of our Lemaitre observers directly gives the elapsed proper time as measured by ideal clocks carried by this observer.

So we want to compute the frequency of the signals upon reception by our surface riding Lemaitre observer, as measured by his own ideal clock. But now that I've gotten you started, maybe I should give you an opportunity to try to finish the computation...

Let me just go back to something I said above: you probably already appreciate that if we compute the frequency shift for signals sent from the surface-riding observer back to our very distant static observer, this turns out to be a red shift which diverges as the falling observer passes the horizon. Before carrying out the computation, from looking at the diagram in Andrew Hamilton's website, can you guess what should happen in the case of signals sent from our very distant static observer to our surface riding observer?
 
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  • #49
dpyikes said:
Pervect -- I think I liked it better when you were answering the questions.

I'm hoping that getting you to answer some questions will ease the communication problem and highlight some of the areas that need more explaining. And I think it has succeeded to some extent.

”1) If you are standing still, and your friend is passing you by at a significant percent of light speed, do you both agree on the frequency of a light beam, or is there some relative red/blue shift due to the difference in your velocities when you both measure the frequency of the same light beam?”
Assuming this takes place in flat space and each are sending signals to the other, there would be a red shifting of signals in both reference frames – The situation is symmetric: If both people sent and received a sequence of signals, both would receive the light at lower frequencies (and receive signals at lower rates) than would be received by people moving along with the two people respectively.

This isn't the answer I was looking for. This appears to be where the major confusion is.

Consider the case where you have a light beam coming "from infinity", the same as in your black hole problem, where you have a light beam falling into the black hole from r=infinity.

Assume that the light beam is pulsed once per second at its source, as in your black hole example.

The two observers, in different states of motion, measure the frequency of the light beam (or look at the color of the light beam).

I thought it was obvious that there will be either a red-shift or a blue-shfit of the measurement of the frequency of the light beam. This phenomenon is called "doppler shift".

There is a closely related point that may also be important here.

Suppose the first observer measures a light beam, comfing from infinity, to have a frequency of 800 terahertz (800e12 hz) , which should put it in the blue region of the spectrum.

The light beam is modulated so that it pulses at once per second according to this observer.

We can assume that this observer is stationary to the source, so that at the source the beam has a frequency of 800 terahertz as well, and is modulated so that it emits 1 second long pulses.

A second moving observer measures the same light beam, but because of the doppler shift he measures a frequency of only 400 terahertz (which should put the frequency of the light into the red region of the spectrum). The second observer will also observe a different timing of the pulses.

The first observer will observe that each 1-second pulse contains 800e12 wavelengths of the signal. Each wavelength has an observable "peak" in the electric field. The second observer will count the same number of wavelengths in the pulse - 800e12. This is because the number of peaks is independent of the observer.

Because the measured frequency of the radiation is only 400e12 hertz, according to the second moving obsserver, however, the second observer will also see that the pulses are not 1 second long, but 2 seconds long. A short way of saying this: any modulation on the light beam (in this case, amplitude modulation) gets red-shifted by exactly the same factor as the carrier does.

”2) If a hovering observer "hovers" at a stationary r coordinate, what is the relative velocity between that hovering observer and an free-falling observer, in the limit as the hovering observer approaches the event horizon?”

As I understand the question, the hoverer is hovering very close to the event horizon and the free faller is falling from infinity, and the question is what is his velocity relative to the hoverer just before the free faller passes the event horizon. I don’t know the answer – in fact, I wouldn’t have thought there is one single answer. The relative speed would be greatest if the free faller were falling radially. Anyway, I don’t know.

That's a fair answer. I should clarify the question a bit - I am assuming that the observer is free-falling radially. I can give you the answer, but you have to decide whether or not to believe it. In the limit, as the hovering observer gets closer and closer to the event horizon, the velocity at which the infalling observer passes the hovering observer approaches 'c'. This happens (for the radially falling observer, which is the only case I've worked out) regardless of the exact trajectory of the infalling observer or his initial (radial) velocity "at infinity" as he falls into the black hole.

Now, if we can get question #1 straightened out (which I thought was the easy part), you can hopefully see why this is relevant.
 
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  • #50
Pervect –

I think I have no problem with what you are saying about #1 – I was imagining A and B sending signals to each other rather than receiving signals from a third source. In your scenario, a source external to our two observers is sending light signals that are received once a second as measured by A while two signals a second are measured by B. Maybe A is moving toward the source, and B is moving away from it.

I believe I heard somewhere that an in-falling object from infinity passing the event horizon approaches c. I have no problem stipulating that.

As to the relevance of all this to the case of how many one second apart signals from approximately flat space will strike the surface of a star before it collapses to singularity, I am not so sure. Is the point that STR-Red shifting of the signals that strike the surface cancels the gravitational blue shifting of those signals? Maybe I heard somewhere that a collapsing star collapses at free fall, hence the surface of the collapsing star will be like the free falling observer. Since the surface will be receiving light STR-red-shifted wrt the almost flat source, the gravitational blue shifting of the in-falling light wrt the source will cancel with its STR-red shifting as it collapses. Maybe there will then be a finite number of strikes from (approximately) flat space time. Of course, the star is not collapsing from infinity, but rather starts with a zero velocity wrt the source. Maybe the surface gets to relativistic speeds wrt to the source pretty fast so this canceling takes place?
 
  • #51
dpyikes said:
I believe I heard somewhere that an in-falling object from infinity passing the event horizon approaches c. I have no problem stipulating that.

No, no, no! Three emphatic negatives, because this is terribly wrong for at least three reasons.

First, you may be confusing coordinate speeds, which have no geometric or physical meaning (in general), with physical measurements of "distance in the large", and thus of "velocity in the large" wrt some observer and his ideal clock.

Second, there are many distinct operationally significant notions of "distance in the large" (even in flat spacetime, for accelerating observers), so this really this should be stated as "velocity in the large" wrt some observer and his ideal clock, and some method measurement.

Third, avoid suggesting that the world line of any infalling test particle becomes null (i.e. that the tangent vector to the curve becomes null) as it crosses the horizon. This is absolutely not what gtr says. True, some truly abysmal arXiv eprints make that claim--- which is one reason why those authors are mostly ignored on the grounds that someone who insists that 1+1=3 in integer arithmetic is obviously pretty darn confused. Learn from standard textbooks, that's my advice--- they are much less likely to mislead you than other sources.

dpyikes said:
As to the relevance of all this to the case of how many one second apart signals from approximately flat space will strike the surface of a star before it collapses to singularity, I am not so sure. Is the point that STR-Red shifting of the signals that strike the surface cancels the gravitational blue shifting of those signals? Maybe I heard somewhere that a collapsing star collapses at free fall, hence the surface of the collapsing star will be like the free falling observer.

If the collapsing star is modeled as a pressure-free perfect fluid or dust, yes. I just mentioned that in my post immediately above, in fact.

If I am not helping, let me know and I will be quiet...
 
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  • #52


Chris Hillman said:
"Proper time" has no meaning unless you specify which observer you are talking about.

I know which observers you are asking about here, but instead of answering your question, I'll let you try to reformulate it properly (no pun intended).

Hi Chris,

Thanks for the prompt reply. OK, I'll give it a go:

In Schwarzschild coordinates, the ratio: proper-time of a free-falling observer, moving at locally Lorentz velocity v relative to a Schwarzschild black hole of mass M, to the coordinate time (the time of a stationary observer far away from an isolated black hole) can be expressed as the product of a gravitational time dilation factor and a velocity time dilation factor, e.g.,

dtau^2/dt^2 = -g_00 (1-v^2/c^2),

where g_00 = -1 + 2GM/(rc^2), r the Schwarzschild radial parameter and G and c have there usual meanings.

Regards, Jorrie
 
  • #53
Chris Hillman said:
No, no, no! Three emphatic negatives, because this is terribly wrong for at least three reasons.

I'm afraid any confusion here can be mostly attributed to me. But I don't think there is any confusion here, at least I hope not. I think there are just some communication problems. I try to keep an open mind about the possibility that I may be confused on some important issues, in fact that's one of the reason I'm glad to see knowledgeable and outspoken people like Chris Hillman here.

First, you may be confusing coordinate speeds, which have no geometric or physical meaning (in general), with physical measurements of "distance in the large", and thus of "velocity in the large" wrt some observer and his ideal clock.

The notion of velocity that I am intending people to understand is not "velocity in the large", but the frame-field velocity. The accelerating, hovering-at-constant r observer has a well-defined frame-field. So does the infalling observer.

The velocity that the infalling observer measures when he passes the hovering observer at the same location in space-time using his local frame field is going to be the same as the velocity as the hovering observer measures when the free-falling observer passes him using HIS local frame-field.

[add]
Let me make this staement even more precise. Two observers at the same point in space-time share the same vector space for their tangent vectors. This is why we can compare the velocity of two observers in the general case if and only if they are at the same event - because this is the only way to guarantee that the tangent space is shared.I should add that I use this approach a lot. If it can be demonstrated that this approach has problems, it has to go, but I think it's OK.

The only thing that's slightly tricky here is that the acceleration of our hovering observer is approaching infinity. This means that the maximum size of his frame field is is going to be very small, approaching zero. I don't think this is a killer problem though. It just involves defining the neighborhood over which the velocity is measured as "small enough". This should always be possible for any observer located arbitrarily close to the event horizon, and that's all we need to do.

Second, there are many distinct operationally significant notions of "distance in the large"

Since we are doing "velocity in the small this objection shouldn't matter.

Third, avoid suggesting that the world line of any infalling test particle becomes null (i.e. that the tangent vector to the curve becomes null) as it crosses the horizon. This is absolutely not what gtr says.

Here I agree. But I was a bit more careful in how I worded my original claim, which is that the limit of the velocity of the infalling observer approaches 'c', relative to the velocity of the hovering observer, as the hovering observer gets closer and closer to the event horizon.

I should add that while the re-phrasing dpyikes has given my original statement is no longer rigorous, I don't think it's fair to expect that it should be. What I'm looking for is enough feedback to see if I've communicated my main points.

Technically speaking, what happens is that the gravitational blueshift approaches infinity as one approaches the event horizon, and the doppler redshift also approaches infinity. The result is that the problem of determining the total red-shfit isn't well defined in Schwarzschild coordinates. The mathematically rigorous solution to these difficulties is not use Schwarzschild coordinates, but to use coordinates that are well-behaved at the horizon. The non-rigorous solution that will turn mathematicians green is to blithely say "The infinite term on the numerator cancels out with the infinite term on the denominator" :-) - i.e. that the infinite blueshift is "cancelled out" by a corresponding infinite red-shift.

Statements like this can only be truly justified by working out the answer in well-behaved coordinates. But I don't think dpyikes has the background for this (as far as I know, I could be wrong), so I'm trying to keep things as simple as possible. I'm basically trying to provide some insight why the observed redshift from a stationary source at infinity to a free-falling (i.e. Painleve) observer is finite in very elementary terms.

And the simple (IMO) answer is that dpyikes intuition has come to the wrong conclusion because he has been ignoring the doppler shift - and the doppler shift is not ignorable.
 
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  • #54
dpyikes said:
Pervect –

Is the point that STR-Red shifting of the signals that strike the surface cancels the gravitational blue shifting of those signals?

Yes, that's basically the point I was trying to make in a nutshell. It looks like Chris Hillman has some issues with what I was trying to say, so stay tuned and see if we can get them sorted out.

the star is not collapsing from infinity, but rather starts with a zero velocity wrt the source. Maybe the surface gets to relativistic speeds wrt to the source pretty fast so this canceling takes place?

No matter how close you are to the event horzion when you drop something, the limit of the velocity as the object approaches the event horizon will be 'c'.

To do so over an arbitrarily short distance requires an infinite acceleration, but the acceleration of the station-holding observer IS infinite - so the relative acceleration of the free-fall observer and the station holding observer is also infinite.

The mathematical details were worked out in https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=602558&postcount=29

where I use the "energy-at-infinity" E rather than the drop height as the appropriate parameter. Dropping an object into a black hole from very near the event horizon is equivalent to setting E in the expression in the above post to a very small number, approaching zero as a limit. The answer in non-geometric units is c*sqrt(E^2)/E. This is undefined when E=0, but for any other value of E, no matter how small, the answer is c.

[add]Actually, I oversimplified. For completeness, the exact expression in geometric units was

<br /> v = lim_{r \rightarrow 2M+} \frac{\sqrt{E^2 - (1 - \frac{2M}{r})}}{E}<br />

here v is the velocity measured relative to a hovering observer at some r>2M

Note that another poster (George Jones) came up with a similar answer in post #31 in the same thread.
 
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  • #55
Hi again, Jorrie,

Jorrie said:
OK, I'll give it a go:

In Schwarzschild coordinates, the ratio: proper-time of a free-falling observer, moving at locally Lorentz velocity v relative to a Schwarzschild black hole of mass M, to the coordinate time (the time of a stationary observer far away from an isolated black hole) can be expressed as the product of a gravitational time dilation factor and a velocity time dilation factor, e.g.,

dtau^2/dt^2 = -g_00 (1-v^2/c^2),

where g_00 = -1 + 2GM/(rc^2), r the Schwarzschild radial parameter and G and c have there usual meanings.

I was using the Painleve chart, which is well behaved on the horizon and in fact in the entire "future interior" region, not the (exterior) Schwarzschild chart, which is only defined in the exterior.

Hi, pervect,

pervect said:
It looks like Chris Hillman has some issues with what I was trying to say, so stay tuned and see if we can get them sorted out.

No matter how close you are to the event horzion when you drop something, the limit of the velocity as the object approaches the event horizon will be 'c'.

OK, you are talking about the velocity of the Painleve observer wrt to the frame of the static observers, who can only exist outside the horizon. Indeed, it makes little sense to try to carry out computations at the horizon using a coordinate chart which is badly behaved there! He did say above that he wants to study the physical experience of an observer standing on the surface of the collapsing star even inside the horizon.

That is why I am urging Jorrie to adopt the Painleve chart, which is one of the simplest charts which is well behaved on and inside the horizon. I don't know anyone would discourage him from becoming familiar with the Painleve chart when this chart is so simple and has so many virtues http://www.arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0001069. I guess that is our disagreement.
 
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  • #56
Chris Hillman said:
Hi again, Jorrie,

I was using the Painleve chart, which is well behaved on the horizon and in fact in the entire "future interior" region, not the (exterior) Schwarzschild chart, which is only defined in the exterior.

Hi Chris, thanks for the reference to the Painleve chart, I have studied this a bit before and will spend some more time on it.

I think you swapped references to dpyikes and myself a bit in your reply. I was not the guy who wanted to 'look inside' the event horizon, it was dpyikes.:wink: My previous (post #52) was strictly aimed at Schwarzschild coordinates, where I tried to correct my poor definitions of observers outside the horizon.

I agree with the problems that sloppy definitions of observers create, so
I will appreciate your comment for the sake of better communication.

Regards, Jorrie
 
  • #57
Thanks

Hi,

I just wanted to thank MeJennifer, Pervect and Chris Hillman for their responses and patience. It is indeed the case that

"dpyikes intuition has come to the wrong conclusion because he has been ignoring the doppler shift - and the doppler shift is not ignorable"

I have learned a good deal from this and hope to continue doing so.
 
  • #58
Frequency shifts observed by various infalling observers

George Jones said:
This is an interesting question, and I hope that sometime in the next few days I can find the time to do the calculation.

Oh, I've done these computations and more, in various different ways. I was trying to nudge MeJennifer, Jorrie, and dpyikes towards discovering some nifty results of this kind on their own, but I can see that wasn't doing a very good job!

Jorrie said:
I think you swapped references to dpyikes and myself a bit in your reply. I was not the guy who wanted to 'look inside' the event horizon, it was dpyikes

I apologize to you both.

dpyikes said:
"dpyikes intuition has come to the wrong conclusion because he has been ignoring the doppler shift - and the doppler shift is not ignorable"

I have learned a good deal from this and hope to continue doing so.

Good, there's some cool stuff here. Did I understand that you wanted to follow the physical experience of an observer riding on the surface of a collapsing dust ball (in an OS model of gravitational collapse)? That in particular you wanted to compute the redshift of signals sent by this surface observer up to very distant static observers? And the frequency shift of signals sent by a distant static observer (or a distant star) to our surface riding observer? (The world lines of such signals would be respectively radially outgoing and radially ingoing null geodesics.)

If so, indeed, in the latter case, since the surface riding observer is moving radially away from the static observer, we can expect the gravitational blue shift (which would be observed by a static observer near the massive object) to counteract the Doppler shift. This suggests there might be a class of radially infalling observers who fall at just the right rate to ensure that they see no frequency shift at all of signals from distant static observers. And there is!

In the past, I posted some detailed computations concerning the physical experience of a half dozen classes of "interesting" observers in the Schwarzschild vacuum, including static observers, slowfall observers (accelerate radially outward with just the magnitude which would allow them to hover, according to Newtonian gravitation; in gtr gravity is a bit stronger so these observers fall slowly radially inwards), Lemaitre observers (fall radially in from rest "at infinity"), Novikov observers (fall radially in from rest at some finite radius), Frolov observers (whose spatial hyperslices are cylinders {\mathbold R} \times S^2, and whose world lines appear as radial rays in the interior Schwarzschild chart), and Hagihara observers (moving in stable circular orbits in the exterior region). It is very useful to write the corresponding frame fields in a number of charts, including the exterior and interior Schwarzschild charts, ingoing and outgoing Eddington charts, (ingoing) Painleve chart, Kruskal-Szekeres chart, and Penrose chart (at the very least--- the Lemaitre chart is another obvious choice).

See "Frame fields in general relativity" at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User:Hillman/Archive to get started.

It is often advantageous to use a coordinate chart which simplifies computations as far as possible. It is a bit difficult to explain without sketches, but assuming that everyone recalled how I rediscovered the Painleve chart by pulling down the spatial hyperslices so that they become locally flat (in the sense of coordinate surfaces, and in the sense of intrinsic geometry!), I was trying to suggest that in this problem it is advantageous to pull down the ingoing or outgoing radial null geodesics to become straight (these constructions give two different charts, the ingoing and outgoing Eddington charts).

So I'd suggest starting with the slowfall observers (see the version of the Wikipedia article which was cited above) represented first in the ingoing Eddington chart, then the outgoing Eddington chart. Try to compute the ration of received frequency (measured by the slowly falling observer) to emitted frequency (measured by the distant static observer). Next, repeat for the Lemaitre observers. In the latter case, you should be able to reconcile your result (in the case of time signals sent from a distant static observer radially inward to a Lemaitre observer, studied using the ingoing Eddington chart) with the result you find using the method sketched by pervect. However, that method only gives results in the exterior region (and by taking a limit, at the horizon), while the method I am suggesting is simpler, more elementary (requires only derivatives, the Minkowskian "Pythagorean theorem", and similar triangles) and gives results in both the future interior and right exterior regions, i.e. the full domain covered by the infalling Eddington chart (which only covers half of the maximal analytic extension of the Schwarzschild vacuum solution, aka the "eternal black hole", but covers the entire exterior of a gravitational collapse model such as the OS model).
 
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  • #59
Just noticed this...

pervect said:
The notion of velocity that I am intending people to understand is not "velocity in the large", but the frame-field velocity. The accelerating, hovering-at-constant r observer has a well-defined frame-field. So does the infalling observer.

The velocity that the infalling observer measures when he passes the hovering observer at the same location in space-time using his local frame field is going to be the same as the velocity as the hovering observer measures when the free-falling observer passes him using HIS local frame-field.

Yes, exactly.

pervect said:
I should add that I use this approach a lot. If it can be demonstrated that this approach has problems, it has to go, but I think it's OK.

Now I am confused, because of course I was suggesting (in the Delphic manner) two methods, both using frame fields. So we must be talking at cross purposes. No doubt this happened because I have in mind a much wider selection of charts and of frame fields.

Be this as it may, after sufficient time has passed to allow dpyikes, Jorrie and maybe MeJennifer to try their hand at computing \omega_{{\rm received}}/\omega_{{\rm emitted}} (for a distant static observer respectively sending and receiving signals from a Lemaitre or slowfall observer), I can give my trigonometric solution and compare with the approach suggested by pervect.
 
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  • #60
Hi Chris, you wrote:

Chris Hillman said:
... after sufficient time has passed to allow dpyikes, Jorrie and maybe MeJennifer to try their hand at computing \omega_{{\rm received}}/\omega_{{\rm emitted}} (for a distant static observer respectively sending and receiving signals from a Lemaitre or slowfall observer), I can give my trigonometric solution and compare with the approach suggested by pervect.

I have tried my hand for a Lemaitre observer. Despite expecting hand slaps for not using Painleve coordinates, I worked in a good old Schwarzschild chart and hence had to stay outside of the event horizon. Here is how I understand it:

The velocity of the Lemaitre observer at Schwarzschild radial coordinate r relative to a locally stationary inertial observer equals the negative of the radial escape velocity, Ve = sqrt(2M/r) in geometric units. If we ignore spacetime curvature for the moment, both the Lemaitre observer and the distant static observer would have measured a wavelength redshift of the other's transmitter by a factor: sqrt((1+Ve)/(1-Ve)).

In curved spacetime, the distant static observer will receive the Lemaitre observer's transmitted wavelength as redshifted by a factor:
sqrt((1+Ve)/(1-Ve))/sqrt(1-2M/r) = 1/(1-Ve), for 2 < r/M < infty, basically dividing by the gravitational redshift factor. The observed redshift diverges at the event horizon, since r/M -> 2.

Likewise, The Lemaitre observer will receive the transmited wavelength of the distant static observer as redshifted by a factor:
sqrt((1+Ve)/(1-Ve))*sqrt(1-2M/r) = 1+Ve, approaching the value 2 as Ve -> 1.

These results are basically 'Newtonian' due to cancellation of the 'relativistic factors'. Provided that this effort is reasonably correct, I will try the Painleve chart next, also treating the inside of the hole.

Jorrie
 

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