What is the significance of equal coefficients in power series?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equality of two power series, specifically \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_{n}(x-a)^{n}\) and \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} b_{n}(x-a)^{n}\). It is established that these series are equal if and only if the coefficients \(a_{n}\) and \(b_{n}\) are identical for all \(n\). However, participants express concerns regarding the convergence of these infinite series, questioning the validity of the equality without convergence. The conversation also touches on the implications of non-convergent power series in the context of p-adic analysis.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of power series and their convergence properties
  • Familiarity with the concept of coefficients in polynomial expressions
  • Basic knowledge of p-adic numbers and analysis
  • Experience with infinite series and summation techniques
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  • Research the convergence criteria for power series in real analysis
  • Study the properties of p-adic integers and their power series representations
  • Explore the concept of nth partial sums and their role in series convergence
  • Investigate the implications of coefficient equality in polynomial and power series
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Mathematicians, students of real analysis, and researchers in p-adic analysis who are exploring the properties of power series and their coefficients.

pendesu
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Homework Statement


Given \overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}a_{n}(x-a)^{n} and \overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}b_{n}(x-a)^{n} that are in R. Then, \overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}a_{n}(x-a)^{n}=\overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}b_{n}(x-a)^{n} if and only if a_{n}=b_{n} for every n=0,1,2,...

The attempt at a solution
(<<) Assume an=bn for every n=0,1,2,...
Then \overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}a_{n}(x-a)^{n}=a_{0}+a_{1}(x-a)+...=b_{0}+b_{1}(x-a)+...=\overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}b_{n}(x-a)^{n}.
(>>) Now with this direction I am having some issues as the series may not necessarily converge. My attempts have been feeble at best. The problem I have had is that the sums are infinite so I don't think I can use that polynomials are equal if and only if their coefficients are equal. At this point I am thinking about looking at the nth partial sums but I am not sure and just would like any advice.
 
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pendesu said:

Homework Statement


Given \overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}a_{n}(x-a)^{n} and \overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}b_{n}(x-a)^{n} that are in R. Then, \overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}a_{n}(x-a)^{n}=\overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}b_{n}(x-a)^{n} if and only if a_{n}=b_{n} for every n=0,1,2,...

The attempt at a solution
(<<) Assume an=bn for every n=0,1,2,...
Then \overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}a_{n}(x-a)^{n}=a_{0}+a_{1}(x-a)+...=b_{0}+b_{1}(x-a)+...=\overset{\infty}{\underset{n=0}{\sum}}b_{n}(x-a)^{n}.
(>>) Now with this direction I am having some issues as the series may not necessarily converge. My attempts have been feeble at best. The problem I have had is that the sums are infinite so I don't think I can use that polynomials are equal if and only if their coefficients are equal. At this point I am thinking about looking at the nth partial sums but I am not sure and just would like any advice.
How can it be said that \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_{n}(x-a)^{n}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty b_{n}(x-a)^{n}\ , unless both sums converge?
 
That is the thing. This was something I was going to ask my professor that I am going to be doing research with in p-adic analysis. I am starting to think this may just be a definition since if I recall my professor he was saying how a p-adic integer which is a power series may not be a convergent power series in the ring of p-adic integers. My professor is busy right now. This might not make sense.
 

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