What Is the Theorem Regarding Mixed Partial Derivatives Called?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the theorem regarding mixed partial derivatives, specifically focusing on the equality of mixed partial derivatives for functions of two variables. Participants explore the implications of this theorem, its name, and whether the existence of such derivatives guarantees the existence of the function itself.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant recalls that for a function of two variables, the equality d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx) holds under certain conditions, specifically when the second partial derivatives are continuous.
  • Another participant identifies this result as Clairaut's theorem and notes that it requires the continuity of second partial derivatives.
  • There is a discussion about the reverse implication of the theorem, with one participant questioning whether the equality of mixed partial derivatives implies the existence of the function.
  • A later reply acknowledges a misunderstanding in phrasing regarding the existence of the function and clarifies that the theorem cannot be used to check for the existence of a function.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the name of the theorem (Clairaut's theorem) and the condition of continuity for the second partial derivatives. However, there is disagreement regarding the implications of the theorem, particularly whether the equality of mixed partial derivatives guarantees the existence of the function.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the dependency on the continuity of second partial derivatives and the nuances in interpreting the implications of the theorem, particularly regarding function existence.

Physics_wiz
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I remember before reading bits and pieces about how if we have a function of two variables, say f = f(x,y), then it must be true that d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx), where the "d"'s are partials.

Can anyone guide me to what this theorem is called or to its implications? Also, does it work in reverse? i.e. if it is true that d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx) for some function f, then does f necessarily exist?
 
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This result is called Clairaut's theorem, and it merely requires that all the second partial derivatives are continuous. The reciprocal of this theorem is not true, since there is at least one function with a pair of 2nd partial derivatives equal at a point while at least one of the 2nd derivatives is not continuous at that point.
 
Physics_wiz said:
I remember before reading bits and pieces about how if we have a function of two variables, say f = f(x,y), then it must be true that d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx), where the "d"'s are partials.
Provided the second partials are continuous.

Can anyone guide me to what this theorem is called or to its implications? Also, does it work in reverse? i.e. if it is true that d/dx(df/dy) = d/dy(df/dx) for some function f, then does f necessarily exist?
If f does not exist then what in the world would you mean by "some function f"? Have you miswritten?
 
Yes, I see now how I wrote doesn't make sense. I was trying to use this fact to solve the problem in my last post of the "Expressing multi-variable functions" Thread, but I guess I can't use this fact to check for whether a function exists or not.
 

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