cocopops12
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Could anyone please tell me how are those two expressions equivalent?! what are the identities used?
The discussion centers on the equivalence of the expressions \(\frac{1}{1-\sin z}\) and \(\frac{1+\sin z}{1-\sin^2 z}\). The identity used to simplify this expression is the Pythagorean identity, which states that \(1 - \sin^2 z = \cos^2 z\). Therefore, the expression can be rewritten as \(\frac{1+\sin z}{\cos^2 z}\). This confirms that the two expressions are indeed equivalent through the application of trigonometric identities.
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