I am studying invariance, and I came across this dilemma.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Suppose we have a subspace with the basis <v1, v2> of the subspace (lets say U2)

and we were to map v=c1v1+c2v2 and we let c2=0.

Now c1T(v1)+c2T(v2)=k1c1v1+0*T(v2)= k1c1v1.

I am doing a proof and need to

know what the question means by the intersection of a collection of

subspaces, and I believe that this is what it refers to,

since we can map c1v1 of <v1> (the basis of "U1") to U1 and arrive at the same

answer.

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# When are linear transformations not invariant?

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