MHB Where Did I Go Wrong in Solving This Integral Using Substitution?

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The integral of sin(x)cos(x) can be solved using substitution, leading to different forms of the answer: sin²(x)/2 + C and -cos²(x)/2 + C. Both answers are equivalent from a calculus perspective, differing only by a constant due to the periodic nature of trigonometric functions. The discussion highlights that such discrepancies often arise with trigonometric identities. Additionally, an alternative method using the double angle identity for sine is presented, reinforcing that different approaches yield consistent results.
Yankel
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Hello,

I was trying to solve the integral of

sin(x)*cos(x)

using the substitution method, what I did was:

u=sin(x) and that yields du/dx = cos(x) and then du=cos(x)*dx

that comes to an integral of u*du, which is easy u^2 / 2 +C. substituting back gives the final answer

sin(x)^2 / 2

But, when I ran this integral in both Maple and Mathematica, I got this answer:

-cos(x)^2 / 2

Now I tried asking Maple if the two answers are the same, but it failed. I tried checking myself, using the relation sin(x)^2+cos(x)^2=1, and got to the conclusion that they don't. I don't see what I did wrong here...
 
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Technically, you answer was not $\sin^{2}(x)/2$, but $\sin^{2}(x)/2+C.$ Likewise, the computer's answer was not $-\cos^{2}(x)/2$, but $-\cos^{2}(x)/2+C$. Since your two answers differ by a constant (namely, $1$), they are really the same answer from a calculus perspective.
 
Ackbach said:
Technically, you answer was not $\sin^{2}(x)/2$, but $\sin^{2}(x)/2+C.$ Likewise, the computer's answer was not $-\cos^{2}(x)/2$, but $-\cos^{2}(x)/2+C$. Since your two answers differ by a constant (namely, $1$), they are really the same answer from a calculus perspective.

Or more clearly, $C_1$ and $C_2$. This happened to me a while ago, it tends to occur a lot with trigonometric functions because of their periodic identities, so you often end up with very different looking expressions which are in fact equal.. :confused:
 
ah, I wasn't thinking about it...interesting.

well done to both of you ! thanks ! :)
 
Just to be cheeky about it:
\int sin(x)~cos(x) dx = \frac{1}{2} \int 2 sin(x)~cos(x) dx = \frac{1}{2} \int sin(2x)dx

After u = 2x:
= \int sin(x)~cos(x) dx = \frac{1}{2} \int sin(u) \cdot \frac{1}{2} du

= -\frac{1}{4} cos(u) + C = -\frac{1}{4} cos(2x) + C

and upon using cos(2x) = cos^2(x) - sin^2(x)
\int sin(x)~cos(x) dx = \frac{1}{4} \left ( sin^2(x) - cos^2(x) \right ) + C

which contains both your sin and cos terms and is also off by a constant from the other solutions. (Nerd)

-Dan
 
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