Demon117
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I understand that it is important for two eigenvectors to be orthogonal, but what is it exactly about mutually exclusive states that makes them orthogonal?
The discussion revolves around the relationship between mutually exclusive states and their orthogonality in the context of quantum mechanics. Participants explore the implications of orthogonality for eigenvectors and the conditions under which states can be considered mutually exclusive, touching on theoretical and conceptual aspects.
Participants do not reach a consensus on whether mutually exclusive states must be orthogonal. Multiple competing views remain regarding the definitions and implications of orthogonality and mutual exclusivity in quantum states.
Participants highlight the potential for confusion stemming from terminology and the specific contexts in which mutually exclusive states are discussed. The discussion reflects varying interpretations of the concepts involved.
facenian said:they don't have to be orthogonal because if they were when you express one of then in the orthogonal base of the other observable you would get a null vector
Fredrik said:It's not entirely clear to me what he meant by "mutually exclusive". If it refers to the states corresponding to different results of the same measurement, then the theorem above is the answer. But he might have been talking about zero transition probability, and in that case, the statement is kind of trivial, once we understand what it says.
The probability that a system prepared in state [itex]|\psi\rangle[/itex] will end up in state [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] after a measurement of an observable that has [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] as the only eigenvector corresponding to some specific result, is [itex]|\langle\phi|\psi\rangle|^2[/itex]. He could mean that [itex]|\psi\rangle[/itex] and [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] are mutually exclusive if that probability is 0. That would of course imply that these state vectors are orthogonal.