Why are mutually exclusive states orthogonal?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between mutually exclusive states and their orthogonality in the context of quantum mechanics. Participants explore the implications of orthogonality for eigenvectors and the conditions under which states can be considered mutually exclusive, touching on theoretical and conceptual aspects.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants assert that mutually exclusive states must be represented by orthogonal kets, while others challenge this notion, suggesting that orthogonality is not a strict requirement.
  • One participant mentions that if mutually exclusive states were orthogonal, expressing one in the basis of the other would yield a null vector, indicating a misunderstanding of the concept.
  • Another participant argues that orthogonal states are mutually exclusive, as this allows for distinguishing different outcomes of a measurement.
  • A participant provides a mathematical explanation regarding eigenvectors of self-adjoint operators, stating that eigenvectors corresponding to different eigenvalues are always orthogonal.
  • Some participants express uncertainty about the meaning of "mutually exclusive," suggesting it may refer to states corresponding to different results of the same measurement or to zero transition probability.
  • There is a suggestion that the professor's assertion may have been specifically about eigenstates of the same observable, aligning with linear algebra theorems.
  • One participant notes that the concept may seem trivial once the definitions and implications are clarified, indicating a potential misunderstanding of the terminology used.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on whether mutually exclusive states must be orthogonal. Multiple competing views remain regarding the definitions and implications of orthogonality and mutual exclusivity in quantum states.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the potential for confusion stemming from terminology and the specific contexts in which mutually exclusive states are discussed. The discussion reflects varying interpretations of the concepts involved.

Demon117
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I understand that it is important for two eigenvectors to be orthogonal, but what is it exactly about mutually exclusive states that makes them orthogonal?
 
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they don't have to be orthogonal because if they were when you express one of then in the orthogonal base of the other observable you would get a null vector
 
facenian said:
they don't have to be orthogonal because if they were when you express one of then in the orthogonal base of the other observable you would get a null vector

Thats strange, maybe I just misunderstood but my professor said that mutually exclusive states must be represented by orthogonal kets. So, why would he say that if its not true?
 
Well, maybe he is right and there's something wrong in my reasoning. Let's wait and see if someone else has something to say
 
It's the other way around. Orthogonal states, by the rule of probability in quantum mechanics, are mutually exclusive. Otherwise, you can't distinguish different outcomes of a measurement. (There is a generalization to this though.)
 
Eigenvectors corresponding to different eigenvalues of a self-adjoint operator are always orthogonal.

\begin{align}
&Ax=\lambda x\\
&Ay=\mu y\\
\\
& \lambda^*\langle x,y\rangle=\langle\lambda x,y\rangle=\langle Ax,y\rangle=\langle x,A^*y\rangle=\langle x,Ay\rangle\\
& \mu\langle x,y\rangle=\langle x,\mu y\rangle=\langle x,Ay\rangle\\
&\Rightarrow\ (\lambda^*-\mu)\langle x,y\rangle=\langle x,Ay\rangle-\langle x,Ay\rangle=0
\end{align}
This calculation shows that eigenvalues of self-adjoint operators are real (because if x=y, then [itex]\mu=\lambda[/itex], and the result we found says that [itex](\lambda^*-\lambda)\|x\|^2=0[/itex], which implies that I am λ=0). This implies that our result can be written as [itex](\lambda-\mu)\langle x,y\rangle=0[/itex], and if [itex]\lambda\neq\mu[/itex], this implies that [itex]\langle x,y\rangle=0[/itex].
 
Last edited:
After this other two contributions I think know I understand better what your professor might have said, he was not talking of general states he had in mind eingenstates of the same obsevable then his assertion is simply the theorem of linear algebra that Fredrik explained.
 
It's not entirely clear to me what he meant by "mutually exclusive". If it refers to the states corresponding to different results of the same measurement, then the theorem above is the answer. But he might have been talking about zero transition probability, and in that case, the statement is kind of trivial, once we understand what it says.

The probability that a system prepared in state [itex]|\psi\rangle[/itex] will end up in state [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] after a measurement of an observable that has [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] as the only eigenvector corresponding to some specific result, is [itex]|\langle\phi|\psi\rangle|^2[/itex]. He could mean that [itex]|\psi\rangle[/itex] and [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] are mutually exclusive if that probability is 0. That would of course imply that these state vectors are orthogonal.
 
Fredrik said:
It's not entirely clear to me what he meant by "mutually exclusive". If it refers to the states corresponding to different results of the same measurement, then the theorem above is the answer. But he might have been talking about zero transition probability, and in that case, the statement is kind of trivial, once we understand what it says.

The probability that a system prepared in state [itex]|\psi\rangle[/itex] will end up in state [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] after a measurement of an observable that has [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] as the only eigenvector corresponding to some specific result, is [itex]|\langle\phi|\psi\rangle|^2[/itex]. He could mean that [itex]|\psi\rangle[/itex] and [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] are mutually exclusive if that probability is 0. That would of course imply that these state vectors are orthogonal.

After looking at a few of these explanations it seems like you are explaining exactly what he had in mind, if I am looking at my notes correctly. It is a rather trivial statement, but once and a while you come across vocabulary which tricks you into thinking it is a far more difficult concept than what is reality.
 

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