Why Can't a Proper Normal Subgroup Contain a Sylow Normalizer in a Group?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the impossibility of a proper normal subgroup \( H \) of a group \( G \) containing the normalizer \( N_G(P) \) of a \( p \)-Sylow subgroup \( P \). It is established that if \( N \leq H < G \), then the equation \( [G:N] = [G:H][H:N] \) implies \( [G:H] > 1 \). Utilizing the Frattini Argument, it is concluded that \( G = HN_G(P) \) leads to \( G \subseteq H \), resulting in the contradiction \( G = H \), confirming that no proper normal subgroup can contain the Sylow normalizer.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of group theory, specifically Sylow theorems
  • Familiarity with normal subgroups and their properties
  • Knowledge of the Frattini Argument in group theory
  • Basic concepts of group actions and normalizers
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  • Study the properties of Sylow subgroups in finite groups
  • Learn about the Frattini Argument and its applications in group theory
  • Explore the implications of normalizers in group actions
  • Investigate examples of groups with proper normal subgroups and their Sylow normalizers
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This discussion is beneficial for group theorists, mathematicians studying abstract algebra, and students seeking to deepen their understanding of normal subgroups and Sylow theory.

mathmari
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Hey! :o

Let $P$ be a $p$-Sylow subgroup in $G$ and $N=N_G(P)$.

I want to show that there is no proper normal subgroup $H$ of $G$ that contains $N$.
We suppose that there is a proper normal subgroup $H$ of $G$ that contains $N$, $$N\leq H<G$$

Then $[G:N]=[G:H][H:N]$, with $[G:H]>1$.

How can we find a contradicion? (Wondering)

Do we use the definition of a normal subgroup? (Wondering)
 
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Do we maybe use Frattini Argument? (Wondering)

By Frattini Argument we have that $G=HN_G(P)$.

Since $H$ is a normal subgroup of $H$ and since $N_G(P)\leq H$, we have that $HN_G(P)\subseteq H \Rightarrow G\subseteq H$.

We have that $H\subseteq G$.

So, it holds that $G=H$. This is a contradiction, since $H$ is a proper subgroup of $G$. Is this correct? (Wondering)
 

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