I Why Do Some Theorists Claim Cosmic Inflation Dilutes Magnetic Monopoles?

AI Thread Summary
Maxwell's Equations indicate that magnetic monopoles are not observed, but some theorists argue that cosmic inflation could dilute their presence. The discussion highlights that magnetic monopoles, if they exist, are not simple particles but rather topological defects from early Universe phase transitions. The Dirac quantization condition suggests a theoretical framework for their existence. The distinction between the equations governing magnetic fields raises questions about the conditions under which monopoles might be detected. Overall, the debate centers on the implications of cosmic inflation for the existence and visibility of magnetic monopoles in the universe.
GaloisGroup
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Why would non-existent monopoles be "diluted" by cosmic inflation?
So if Maxwell's Equations state that Div B = 0 which is a statement that there are no magnetic monopoles why do some folks claim that Cosmic Inflation "dilutes" magnetic monopoles?
 
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##\nabla\cdot\vec B=0## is a statement that we don't see magnetic monopoles, not a proof that there are none.

A reason why we don't see any (either they exist, but are super rare, or they don't exist at all) would be nice.
 
The magnetic monopoles that are considered in cosmology are not point particles. They are topological defects resulting from phase transitions in the early Universe, typically in grand unified theories.
 
I am fascinated by the Dirac quantization condition that pertains to the existance of a single magnetic monopole.
 
The equation $$ \vec \nabla \cdot \vec B = 0 $$ rules out the existence of magnetic monopoles but there is another equation $$ \vec \nabla \cdot \vec B = \mu _ 0 \rho _ m $$ which includes the existence of magnetic monopoles.
 
GaloisGroup said:
why do some folks claim that ….?
Do you have a particular instance of this claim? It’s hard to have a sensible discussion without that.
 
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