Why Do Some Theorists Claim Cosmic Inflation Dilutes Magnetic Monopoles?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the claim that cosmic inflation dilutes magnetic monopoles, despite Maxwell's Equations indicating their absence. Participants highlight that magnetic monopoles are not point particles but rather topological defects arising from phase transitions in the early Universe, particularly in grand unified theories. The Dirac quantization condition is referenced, emphasizing the theoretical framework surrounding the existence of magnetic monopoles. The conversation underscores the complexity of proving their existence or rarity in cosmological contexts.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Maxwell's Equations, specifically the divergence of magnetic fields.
  • Familiarity with topological defects in cosmology.
  • Knowledge of grand unified theories (GUTs) in particle physics.
  • Awareness of the Dirac quantization condition related to magnetic monopoles.
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the implications of cosmic inflation on particle physics.
  • Study the role of topological defects in the early Universe.
  • Examine grand unified theories and their predictions regarding magnetic monopoles.
  • Explore the Dirac quantization condition and its significance in theoretical physics.
USEFUL FOR

Physicists, cosmologists, and students of theoretical physics interested in the implications of cosmic inflation and the theoretical existence of magnetic monopoles.

GaloisGroup
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TL;DR
Why would non-existent monopoles be "diluted" by cosmic inflation?
So if Maxwell's Equations state that Div B = 0 which is a statement that there are no magnetic monopoles why do some folks claim that Cosmic Inflation "dilutes" magnetic monopoles?
 
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##\nabla\cdot\vec B=0## is a statement that we don't see magnetic monopoles, not a proof that there are none.

A reason why we don't see any (either they exist, but are super rare, or they don't exist at all) would be nice.
 
The magnetic monopoles that are considered in cosmology are not point particles. They are topological defects resulting from phase transitions in the early Universe, typically in grand unified theories.
 
I am fascinated by the Dirac quantization condition that pertains to the existence of a single magnetic monopole.
 
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The equation $$ \vec \nabla \cdot \vec B = 0 $$ rules out the existence of magnetic monopoles but there is another equation $$ \vec \nabla \cdot \vec B = \mu _ 0 \rho _ m $$ which includes the existence of magnetic monopoles.
 
GaloisGroup said:
why do some folks claim that ….?
Do you have a particular instance of this claim? It’s hard to have a sensible discussion without that.
 
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