Hi.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Here, somebody apparently derives Maxwell's equations using only symmetry of second derivatives and the Lorenz gauge condition. Unfortunately it's in German, but I think the basic ideas are clear from the maths only.

In this derivation, the magnetic field turns out to be divergence-free, even before the application of the gauge condition. Why? Shouldn't such a general derivation allow for magnetic monopoles?

Also, it seems a bit suspicious that this derivation only works by fixing a specific gauge. How can this be the same as usual ED which allows different gauges?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# I Derivation: Maxwell's equation only from the Lorenz gauge

Have something to add?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**