I'll write down what i know and point it out if I'm wrong.So we normalize the wave function because -∫|ψ(x,t)|^2dx should always be equal to 1 right? Has this anything to do with transition from ψ to ψ^2?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Why do we need complex numbers while normalizing the wave function?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**