Why Does (0+1)! Equal 1 in Mathematics?

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The discussion centers on the mathematical reasoning behind why (0+1)! equals 1. It explains that using the factorial definition, (x+1)! can be expressed as (x+1)x!, and when x=0, this simplifies to (0+1)! = (0+1)0!. The key point is that 0! is defined as 1, leading to the conclusion that (0+1)! = 1! = 1. The factorial symbol appears to "disappear" because it is evaluated during the simplification process. A recommended video provides a clear explanation of this concept.
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the explanation i got for this is because..

(x+1)!=(x+1)x!

and that when x=0

(0+1)!=(0+1)0!

simplified 1=0!

but this implies (0+1)!=1... i don't see how... if (0+1)0!=0!, then for (0+1)!=1, where did the factorial symbol go? why does the factorial disappear for this? (0+1)!=(0+1)(0)(0-1)(0-2)etc... so someone please explain to me why (0+1)!=1
 
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We have that ##0+1=1##, thus ##(0+1)! = 1! = 1##.
 
if (0+1)0!=0!, then for (0+1)!=1, where did the factorial symbol go?
The factorial sumbol vanished on the RHS because the factorial was evaluated.

(0+1)0! = (0+1)!
=> 1x0! = 1!
=> 0! = 1
 
jedishrfu said:
This video should explain it

www.youtube.com/watch?v=Mfk_L4Nx2ZI


That video is perfect. That is the best explanation I ever saw. The guy simply followed the pattern.
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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